1. With mutation set to 0, migration set to 0, all genotypes with equal fitness, and assortative mating set to 0, what would you expect to happen and why?

a. allele frequencies should change dramatically, because microevolution is occurring

b. new alleles will be entering the population, which will change allele frequencies

c. some phenotypes are more adaptive than others, so they will increase in frequency over generations

d. allele frequencies should stay about the same, because microevolution is not occurring

2. When you changed the Genotype Relative fitness settings from

rr 1 Rr 1 RR 1 to

rr 0.5 Rr 0.5 RR 1,

What should you predict will happen over generations?

a. R and r will maintain the same frequencies

b. mutation will lead to a new allele

c. r will become more common and R less common

d. R will become more common and r less common

3. Did the koi simulation simulate microevolution or macroevolution and why?

a. both: it's at the population level which is larger than an organism and smaller than a species

b. neither: it wasn't evolution because there were no new animals evolving

c. macroevolution: it was all about new species descending from shared common ancestors

d. microevolution: it was all about allele frequencies changing in populations

This is the koi fish pond simulator

Why does E6V hemoglobin polymerize?

1. Name 2 colonization factors that allow N. meingitidis the ability to colonize the nasopharynx.
2. What mechanisms do Staphlococcus aureus possess that help with resistance to the host immune system?

Please give the genus and species for each question.

1. The colonies are typically large, gray-white opaque colonies on blood agar. Some strains are beta hemolytic. On MacConkey agar the colonies appear red from fermentation of lactose in the medium. The bacterial cells are gram-negative straight rods. The biochemical reactions are indole positive, methyl red positive, voges proskauer negative and citrate negative. The microbe is (genus and species):

16. A 38-year-old man in Alabama developed bilateral paresthesia and pain in his ears, headache, sore throat, and anorexia. These symptoms persisted and later were accompanied by fever, difficulty swallowing, confusion, and tremor. He was admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 105 F, nuchal rigidity, confusion, agitation, and spasmodic tremors. Physical examination admission revealed dysarthria, dysphagia, pharyngeal paralysis, and drooling. Stimulation of the patient precipitated spasms with spontaneous flexion of all extremities. A lumbar puncture revealed no marked abnormalities. Seven days later, the patient had pharyngeal and laryngeal spasms, subsequent cyanosis, and suffered a respiratory arrest; he was resuscitated immediately. Reviewing the patient’s history he had been bitten on the right ear by a bat four weeks prior to admission. The bat had escaped and the patient had sought medical care. Over the next few days, the patient lapsed into a coma. Neurologic examination revealed facial paralysis, generalized hyporeflexia, and response to only deep pain. No other focal abnormalities were present. Initially the patient was treated with diphenylhydantoin, diazepam, and chlorpromazine. Once the coma ensued, the sedatives were discontinued. Proteinuria, hypothermia and hypoxia subsequently developed. Despite intensive respiratory care, antibiotics, postural drainage, use of bronchodilators, and vigorous suctioning, hypoxia persisted. The patient developed a pneumothorax, had a cardiorespiratory arrest and died. The microbe is (genus and species):

30. a 7-year-old boy was brought to your office for evaluation of a sore throat and fever which he had for about 5 days. He is the son of parents who immigrated to the United States from Moscow 6 months ago. He has not had much medical care in his life, and his immunization status is unknown. He is anxious, tachypneic, and appears sick. His temperature is 101.5 F and his voice is hoarse. His tonsils and pharynx are red and swollen with a grey membrane coating the tonsils, uvula and soft palate. He has lymphadenopathy. His lungs are clear. He is transferred to a local children’s hospital with the presumptive diagnosis of:

QUESTION 14

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy is a condition that leads to blindness. It results due to a lack of chemical energy (ATP) in certain cells of the eye. Based on your knowledge, the organelle responsible for this disease is the _______________.

QUESTION 15

A man has a sister and a mother with albinism, an autosomal recessive disorder. The man (who is not ablino) has a child with a homozygous dominant (normal) woman. The chance that their child does NOT have the disease is _________.

QUESTION 16

If an individual expresses a dominant disease, which of the following is true?

QUESTION 17

Freckling is a dominant characteristic. Which of the following crosses can produce individuals that exhibit a recessive phenotype?

QUESTION 18

If a true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tall pea plant of unknown parentage. Which of the following is correct?

QUESTION 19

If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of tall:short plants?

QUESTION 20

Some cats are white, which is a dominant trait (W allele). Other cats are not white (they can be any other color). This is recessive. Which of the following is a black cat?

QUESTION 21

Morgan buys a male python from a snake dealer who tells him that the snake carries the albino allele. What is the most effective way for Morgan verify this statement?

QUESTION 22

In a monohybrid cross, how many traits are examined?

QUESTION 23

In a one-trait test cross, the phenotype that disappears in the F1 generation is the -

QUESTION 24

Allele is defined as _________________.

QUESTION 25

A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of -

QUESTION 26

Recessive phenotypes are "recessive" because ____________________.

QUESTION 27

Sickle cell disease is caused by a single mutation in the DNA of a particular gene. A person with this disease has red blood cells that lose their original donut shape and form a sickle shape. People with this disorder suffer from low energy levels, blood clots, and strokes. This is an example of -

QUESTION 28

If both parents express a particular trait, but their child does not, what does this indicate about the trait?

QUESTION 29

A male is always homozygous for a trait that is -

QUESTION 30

Polydactyly (many digits) is a dominant condition. A person who has the genotype Pp will exhibit __________.

QUESTION 31

"Phenotype" is another word for _____________.

QUESTION 32

A small segment of DNA that contains the specific code for a specific trait is known as a(n) _____________.

QUESTION 33

Which of the following would not be a viable (alive) offspring?

QUESTION 34

Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?

QUESTION 35

A genetic profile includes -

QUESTION 36

Preimplantation diagnosis is performed on _______________.

QUESTION 37

In hemoglobin, the shift from glutamic acid to valine is considered what type of mutation?

QUESTION 38

The technique of ultrasound provides a picture of the _____________________.

QUESTION 39

Inversions are chromosomal mutations that -

QUESTION 40

Which of the following syndromes is caused by a translocation?

QUESTION 41

A tube placed through the female sex organ into the uterus to obtain a small sample of tissue is characteristic of ______________________.

QUESTION 42

The sperm and egg of alligators contain 16 chromosomes each. A fertilized egg that will develop into a baby alligator contains _________________.

QUESTION 43

A parent has a deletion on one homologue of a pair of chromosomes. What is the probability of this individual's child carrying the same deletion?

QUESTION 44

A karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by -

QUESTION 45

What kinds of mutations can be revealed through ultrasound?

QUESTION 46

A person without a Y chromosome is always:

QUESTION 47

A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes.

True

False

QUESTION 48

A missing piece of chromosome 5 may result in a child whose glottis and larynx do not develop properly resulting in an abnormal cry. This is called -

QUESTION 49

Chromosome number 1 is the ____________________.

QUESTION 50

Chorionic villus sampling carries less risk of causing miscarriage than amniocentesis.

Thamnophis sirtalis garter snakes eat poisonous newts, Taricha granulosa, containing tetrodotoxin. Resistance to tetrodotoxin is highly heritable in these snakes. Garter snakes must also escape predators by moving quickly, and crawling speed is also highly heritable. Selection on both resistance to tetrodotoxin and crawling speed are strong. Nonetheless, neither trait increases very much each generation if both are artificially selected in a lab population. Explain this result.

Explain why the same individual can be told they have different ancestry composition when the same data is analysed by different ‘studies’. What other factors do you think might affect the outcome of such tests (4 marks, 4-6 sentences max)? Note: this is not asking about the same data analysed with different stringency values.

What are some of the genetic techniques that are currently used to identify ancestry?

How can genetic linkage be used to map disease-associated loci? Use the identification of CFTR as the causative loci for CF via linkage analysis as an example in your answer.

GWAS and linkage analysis are both used to map disease-associated loci. Compare and contrast the two techniques.

Guys please help me with these two questions. They are linked and Im struggling to find accurate answers.

Draw a cell containing such a channel before and after application of GABA, indicating ionic movements through the channel. Next, draw a trace of membrane potential Vm over time for a cell before and after application of GABA. Make sure your axes are to scale. Explain your drawings.

Explain the statement, “Thermodynamics determines the direction and regulatory capacity of metabolic pathways”

During the 1940s, military ships from the South Pacific accidentally introduced brown tree snakes from Australia to the island of Guam. These snakes eat birds, lizards, and small mammals in their native range of Australia. Since no species on Guam eats the snakes, their population has grown rapidly. Researchers estimate that two million tree snakes now inhabit the island. So far, 10 species of birds and 5 species of lizards have disappeared from Guam; small mammals have also decreased in abundance.

Use this information and your knowledge about biology to answer questions 1 – 5

1. Since the brown tree snake is a keystone species in Guam, it must also be a keystone species in Australia. True or false?

2. Native predators of birds on Guam likely decreased in abundance after brown tree snakes arrived. True or false?

3. If birds on Guam usually disperse seeds, brown tree snakes likely had a negative indirect effect on plants. True or false?  

4. Since more prey and fewer predators occur on Guam than in Australia, the density of brown tree snakes in Guam likely exceeds the density in Australia. True or false?

5. If some species of the now-extinct lizards used to eat bird eggs, brown tree snakes had a positive direct effect and a negative indirect effect on birds. True or false?

This is also the information provided

HbS, the variant of hemoglobin responsible for sickle-cell anemia, aggregates into long chains in aqueous, biological conditions (pH 7.4, 37^oC, some salt and buffer present).

1. Explain this phenomenon from a molecular point of view. Why does it form chains, not globular aggregates?

2. Why is this phenomenon unsurprising to biochemists familiar with the details of protein folding?

The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below.

1. formation of 2 new nuclei, each with n numberchromosomes present

2. alignment of dyadsat the metaphase plate

3. separationof sister chromatids

4. separationof the homologs; no uncoupling of centromeres

5. synapsis; tetrad “chromosomes” moving to the middle of the cell in pairs

49.__  From the descriptions above, which of the following is the orderthat most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis?

A) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1      B) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3         C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1           D) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3    E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

50.__ Which of the steps take place in only meiosisandnot in mitosis?

A) 1,2, and 3

B) 1,2,4, and 5

C) 1,4, and 5

D) 2 and 3 only

E) 2,3, and 5

55.__ During which portions of the cell cycle are “chromosomes” composed of two chromatids (dyads)?

A) during interphase through anaphase

B) during G₁of interphase through metaphase

C) during metaphase through telophase

D) during anaphase through telophase

E) during G₂of interphase through metaphase

56.___ Which of these statements is false?

A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome.

B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY).

C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.

D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.

E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.

59.__ All of the following are functions of meiosis in protists (algae) except:

A) reduction of chromosome number by half.

B) independent assortment of chromosomes.

C) production of spore cells.

D) production of gamete cells.

E) crossing over and recombination of homologous chromosomes.

60.___ How do the 4 daughter cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated DNA and are just about to begin G₂ of interphase?

A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.

B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.

D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.

E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.

Genotyping chip: screens for known and common pathogenic mutations or by nucleotide sequencing of the entire CFTR gene. It will compare genotype to wildtype reference genotype.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using this genotyping chip to find CFTR mutations?
Disadvantages: false negative chip only caputres part of the mutation, thats not in selected range

Suggest and justify a second appropriate method that could have been used to identify Naomi’s CFTR genotype thats not using genotyping chip.