These relate to the Lotka-Volterra equations we discussed for competition and for predation. You may have to use web resources for some questions.
For two competing species, use what you know about Lotka-Volterra models to sketch and describe the outcomes for each of the following scenarios:
What would be the ultimate outcome for both competitors in each of the following sets of conditions? (15 points total).
12. K1 = 200, K2 = 100, alpha = 1.5, beta = 2
Species 1 will win the competition.
13. K1 = 100, K2 = 200, alpha = 1.5, beta = 2
Species 2 will win the competition.
14. K1 = 200, K2 = 100, alpha = 2.5, beta = 1.5
Both species have greater competition with each other, so there is UNSTABLE coexistence.
Remember, I used β (beta) but your book uses alpha (α1,2 and α2,1). It’s just two ways of saying the same thing.
Let’s take it up a notch. Consider the following scenario: For many years, the population size of Species 1 has consistently hovered around 100 individuals/km2 while Species 2’s population size has been approximately 50 individuals. Species 1 uses resources at one-quarter the rate of Species 2. Use the information to answer the following questions. You’ll need your critical thinking skills!
Given the information available, sketch the Lotka-Volterra isocline diagram that best represents the scenario above. Don’t forget to label your graph. Are the populations of each species likely to be stable or unstable? (5 points)
Now imagine a case where the values above are the carrying capacities, not the population sizes. For simplicity’s sake, assume that resource use is the only factor that determines competition coefficients (alpha and beta). Sketch the isocline diagram that describes this new scenario. Which species should win? (5 points)
BONUS (3 points) What would be the population sizes of each species in the absence of their competitor? In other words, if I removed individuals of Species 1, how many individuals of Species 2 could there be? Likewise, if I removed individuals of Species 2, How would Species 1’s population grow? (Hint: it might be helpful to first consider the effect of removing a single individual).
Explain how the two figures below relate to one another in terms of predator-prey relationships? Label the axis and put in any missing directional arrows (5 points)
In: Biology
What is the difference between positive and negative feedback?
What is the difference between an endergonic and exergonic reaction?
What's needed to go on to kreb cycle, what's need to go into electron transport chain?
What are the end products and amount for glycolysis, krebs cycle and electron transport chain?
(in detail- thanks)
In: Biology
Question 56 (1 point)
To measure T cell function, we perform
Question 56 options:
serum protein electrophoresis |
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CD18 surface marker expression |
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the NBT test |
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intradermal injection of tetanus toxoid |
Question 57 (1 point)
Lack of tonsils as an indicator of the lack of B cells is seen in baby boys with which of the following immunodeficiencies?
Question 57 options:
DiGeorge syndrome |
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LAD |
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purine nucleoside phosphorylase |
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Bruton's disease |
Question 58 (1 point)
____________ infections suggest defects in antibody production, ____________ infections suggest defects in T cell function, and both types of infections suggest ________________.
Question 58 options:
bacterial, viral, SCID |
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fungal, viral, SCID |
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viral, fungal, neutrophil defects |
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bacterial, viral, DiGeorge |
Question 59 (1 point)
Acquired immunodeficiencies can be the result of
Question 59 options:
HIV |
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alcoholism |
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drugs |
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any of these |
Question 60 (1 point)
To diagnose an immunodeficiency of
Question 60 options:
T and B cells, a spleen biopsy is performed followed by immunohistochemistry |
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T cells, live yeast is injected intradermally and the size of the delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction is measured |
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B cells, serum protein electorphoresis and immunoglobulin quantitation by nephelometry is performed |
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macrophage, the enzyme levels are measured |
In: Biology
Question 36 (1 point)
Antibody-mediated destruction of the acetylcholine receptor at the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction occurs in which of the following diseases?
Question 36 options:
biliary cirrhosis |
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Addison's |
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multiple sclerosis |
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myasthenia gravis |
Question 37 (1 point)
IgA autoantibodies against gliadin, tissue transglutaminase, and endomysium are found in patients with the following disease.
Question 37 options:
celiac |
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Crohn's |
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type 1 diabetes mellitus |
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Addison's |
Question 38 (1 point)
How should a patient with Hashimoto's disease be treated?
Question 38 options:
placed on a gluten-free diet |
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treat the symptoms, which sometimes resolves the situation |
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given replacement therapy with glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids |
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given thyroid hormone replacement therapy |
Question 39 (1 point)
How would you determine a diagnosis of celiac disease?
Question 39 options:
triiodothyronine and thyroxine (T3 and T4) levels and antibodies to thyroglobulin and thyroperoxidase |
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autoantibodies targeting the adrenal cortex |
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IgA against tissue transglutaminase |
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antibody to thyroid hormone-stimulating receptor, triiodothyronine and thyroxine (T3 and T4) levels |
Question 40 (1 point)
Antibodies found in type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes include
Question 40 options:
transglutaminase, insulin and insulin-associated antigen |
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myelin basic protein, transglutaminase and insulin |
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catecholamines, desmoglein, and insulin |
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glutamic acid decarboxylase-65 (GAD-65), insulin associated antigen, and insulin |
In: Biology
How does the immune system stop itself after the pathogen is cleared?
How are B and T cells made?
How does the immune system allow helpful commensal bacteria to survive but not potentially pathogenic bacteria in the mucosal tissues?
How do the parts of the immune system communicate with each other?
In: Biology
8. A circular plasmid of 6200 base pairs (bp) with three restriction enzyme sites at 900, 1300, and 4000 bp. You digest this plasmid, then run the digest on a gel. What are the expected DNA fragment sizes?
9. A linear plasmid of 6200 base pairs (bp) with three restriction enzyme sites at 900, 1300, and 4000 bp. You digest this plasmid, then run the digest on a gel. What are the expected DNA fragment sizes?
10. In a random sequence consisting of equal proportions of all four nucleotides, what is the average distance between restriction enzymes for a restriction enzyme with a 4-base cleavage site (hint- look for a similar problem in your book).
In: Biology
Link the genetic characteristics to the DNA structure and also list and describe Mendel's principles and describe how each contribute to genetic variability. How might biology have be different if his discoveries had not been lost for decades? Be prepared to discuss the significance of Mendel's discoveries to moder biology.
In: Biology
Under what conditions are generalization favored overspecialization and vice versa. Explain why those conditions lead to specialization or generalization. For each of the animals below, tell me the ways they are likely to avoid predation of themselves or their offspring (tactics that may be employed to deter predators, camouflage techniques, behavioral techniques/postures, etc.). There can be multiple answers per species. You’ll have to use your web skills to look these up! Put some thought into it!
Northern Elephant Seal (Mirounga angustirostris)
Broccoli (Brassica oleracea var. Italica)
Blue-ringed octopus (Hapalochlaena spp.)
Killdeer (Charadrius vociferus)
Five-lined skink (Plestiodon faciatus)
In: Biology
In: Biology
Differences between Translation and transcription
Purpose
Definition (scientific and in your own words so a 6th grader would understand it)
Products
Location
Initiation
Termination
Elongation
Inhibitions (antibiotics)
In: Biology
A mutation in the liver enzyme PFK-2/FBPase-2 results in the loss of cAMP-dependent kinase phosphorylation site, thus resulting in a loss of responsiveness to cAMP-dependent kinase. What are the effects of this mutation on blood glucose levels during times of fasting? Please explain your answer.
In: Biology
Explain in detail how two-component systems detect an environmental signal and mediate a change in transcription in response to the signal. Your answer should include all essential domains and residues.
In: Biology
Which of the following statements regarding flagella are true?
Select one or more:
a. Some microbes contain internal flagella
b. Some microbes contain external flagella
c. All flagella spin in a circular fashion
d. Some microbes contain perpendicular flagella
e. Bacterial flagella consist of multiple parts
In: Biology
59. If "O" is the gene for the color of a carrot, and "OO" is the written form of the genotype, what is the genotype? a. orange b. heterozygous dominant c. homozygous recessive d. homozygous dominant e. heterozygous recessive
When you pour salt on a snail or slug, they begin to shrivel up and die while excreting a bubbly mucus around themselves, what process best describes what is happening to the snail? a. Osmosis b. Endocytosis c. Passive Facilitated Diffusion d. Passive Simple Diffusion e. Active Transport
What attracts or directs the synthesis enzyme to the template in Transcription? a. Promoter b. 5'-cap c. Poly-A Tail d. Start Codon e. Primer
Thinking of the various molecules that make up a biological membrane, the nature of which molecule specifically provides membranes with its unique structure (the bilipid layer)? a. proteins b. phospholipids c. carbohydrates d. cholesterol e. cellulose
70. Why is the cytoskeleton and ribosomes characterized as cellular structures rather than organelles? a. they lack a cell wall b. they lack a nucleus c. they lack a biological membrane d. they are characterized as vacuoles, not structures e. they lack nucleotides
73. Which of the following is NOT a function of cellular membranes? a. regulate transport of a solute b. localize function c. define compartments d. mediate cell-to-cell communication e. locomotion
In: Biology
Following information is from the instruction of Q5 DNA polymerase: One unit of enzyme will incorporate 10 nmol of dNTP into acid insoluble material in 30 minutes at 74°C. The temperature of denaturing should be ( ) and the temperature of extension should be ( )
94℃ to 98℃ for both. |
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94℃ to 98℃ for denaturing, 74℃ for extension. |
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72℃ for denaturing, 50℃ to 65℃ for extension. |
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94℃ to 98℃ for denaturing, 50℃ to 65℃ for extension. |
In: Biology