Complete the following sentence: "A competitive inhibitor competes with substrate binding to the _________ site, generally by also binding to this site; its effect on reaction rate becomes neglectable when the concentration of _________ is sufficiently high compared to the concentration of __________."

Select one:
a. active, inhibitor, substrate
b. active, substrate, product
c. active, substrate, inhibitor
d. allosteric, inhibitor, substrate
e. allosteric, substrate, inhibitor
Question 8
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00
Not flaggedFlag question
Question text
Complete the following sentence: "Cyclin levels _________ during cell cycle whereas cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) levels _________. Progression through cell cycle results from the formation of _________ complexes, within which _________ is activated through phosphorylation."

1) A total of 6147 North American Caucasians were blood typed for the MN locus, which is determined by two codominant alleles, L^M and L^N. The following data were obtained:

Blood type                     Number

       M                               1654

     MN                              3215

       N                               1278

Carry out a chi-square test to determine whether this population is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium at the MN locus.

2) Tay–Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disorder. Among Ashkenazi Jews, the frequency of Tay–Sachs disease is 1 in 2400. If the Ashkenazi population is mating randomly for the Tay–Sachs gene, what proportion of the population consists of heterozygous carriers of the Tay–Sachs allele?

3) Color blindness in humans is an X-linked recessive trait. In most populations, we saw that approximately 10% of the men are colorblind, however in a unique region on a remote island the presence of color blind men is closer to 15% (6 points)

a. If mating is random for the color-blind locus, what is the frequency of the color-blind allele in this unique population?

b. What proportion of the women in this population is expected to be colorblind?

c. What proportion of the women in the population are expected to be heterozygous carriers of the color-blindness allele?

Describe how catalysts work and give an example of one. What is the Kd for a catalyst and how would you interpret a low Kd. How do non-specific DNA binding proteins work? How do specific DNA binding proteins work?

Design an experiment to determine the changes in the transcriptome (global gene expression) of human cells in response to infection with the influenza virus. The experiment must be explained in detailed and have an appropriate control.

If a chemical was to block the transport of electrons from ferredoxin to NADP+ reductase how would that affect the process of photosynthesis (i.e. what would still be produced, what wouldn’t be produced, would the plant live, etc)?

The data below is from a series of two-point crosses.
Use the recombination frequencies to construct a genetic map of all three genes.

cv – ct 34%

cv – vg 50%

vg – ct 30%

a) Draw a genetic map including all three genes and the distance between them.

b) A fourth gene, g, is found to have 12% recombination when tested with cv. Next you plan to test g and ct . Predict the outcome of the cross between g and ct.

Part 7

In a ____________ cell, every maternal homolog has a matching paternal homolog.

• A. sperm

• B. haploid

• C. diploid

• D. bacterial

• E. egg

At the G1 phase of cell cycle, body cells of goats have 60 chromosomes. How many sister chromatids would you expect to see in a cell of a goat during G2 phase?

• A. 30

• B. 60

• C. 15

• D. 120

Only one of the following enzymes given below is needed inside a replication bubble. What would that be?

• A. DNA polymerase

• B. ATP synthase

• C. ribozymes

• D. cyclin dependent kinase

• E. RNA polymerase

If an embryonic cell of a diploid organism has 40 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would you expect to see in a skin cell of this organism?

• A. 10

• B. 20

• C. 40

• D. 80

One process common to both mitosis and meiosis is;

• A. separation of homologous chromosomes

• B. condensation of sister chromatids

• C. generation of two identical cells

• D. crossing over between homologs

• E. generation of four unique cells

Part 7

What is a difference in the formation of leading strand and lagging strand?

• A. leading strand is formed continuously, lagging strand is formed in fragments

• B. leading strand elongates at 3’ end, lagging strand elongates at 5’ end

• C. leading strand is formed by DNA polymerase, lagging strand is formed by reverse transcriptase

• D. leading strand starts with an RNA primer, lagging strand starts itself

Which of these cells in a body are most likely to be in G0 phase (exited from cell cycle)

• A. muscle cells in the heart

• B. cancerous cells in a tumor

• C. stem cells in the skin

All cells in an adult body are genetically identical, because a fertilized egg grows into an embryo and then an adult, using the cell division known as;

• A. replication

• B. gametogenesis

• C. meiosis

• D. mitosis

The checkpoint that decides if the cell should continue to divide again, is located at;

• A. start of G2 phase

• B. end of M phase

• C. end of G1 phase

• D. end of S phase

Part 7

Which of the following happens during meiosis II?

• A. homologs separate

• B. sister chromatids separate

• C. homologs cross over

• D. sister chromatids form

Which of these is a unique feature in sexual reproduction?

• A. mitosis

• B. cell division

• C. formation of gametes

• D. formation of clones

In a diploid organism, pairs of chromosomes inherited from father and mother are known as;

• A. homologous chromosomes

• B. condensed chromosomes

• C. sex chromosomes

• D. homozygous alleles

What parts of eukaryotic chromosomes become short at each DNA replication, and stop cell division after a certain number of divisions?

• A. terminators

• B. centromeres

• C. telomeres

• D. genes

• E. promoters

Part 8

What happens on the promoter of a gene?

• A. ribosomes bind to initiate translation

• B. transcription complex forms to start transcription

• C. activators bind to increase transcription

• D. DNA polymerase binds to start replication

Translation begins before transcription ends in;

• A. human cells

• B. prokaryotic cells

• C. all eukaryotic cells

• D. some eukaryotic cells

• E. plant cells

Gene silencing or activation by chromatin packing or unpacking is an example for;

• A. extreme DNA damage

• B. epigenetic regulation

• C. point mutations

• D. reverse transcription

How does the same anticodon on tRNA recognize different codons?

• A. by denaturing

• B. by excision repair

• C. by wobbling

• D. by alternative splicing

"Humans acquire Staphylococcus saprophyticus from direct exposure to animals or inadequately cooked animal food products. Young women are more susceptible to genitourinary colonization than are others, and some people develop infection in association with hormonal influences that occur near or during menstruation. Sexual intercourse promotes colonization and infection. Alterations in the genital flora effected by spermicides or candidal infection favor colonization by S. saprophyticus. Anal intercourse may play a role in infection in homosexual men."

I am having trouble trying to figure out the relation between acquiring Staphylococcus saprophyticus from animals versus sexual intercourse. How are humans infected by Staphylococcus saprophyticus, and what would the symptoms of that be?

Part 8

Choose all that apply. The ability to perform differential gene expression is essential to cells because; (hint: three correct choices)

What is the function of the terminator?

• A. stops metastasis of cancers

• B. stops transcription of a gene

• C. stops DNA replication

• D. stops protein synthesis

By definition, a mutation is;

• A. change in a cell cycle controlling protein

• B. replacement of a nucleotide with another

• C. a permanent change in normal DNA sequence

• D. always a harmful event in a cell

What is the function of rRNAs in protein synthesis?

• A. bring the message from the gene to make proteins

• B. makeup the structure of the ribosome

• C. choose the correct amino acid to be added to the chain

• D. bring amino acids to be added to a growing protein chain

1. What are the microorganisms responsible for Cholera and Pertussis?

a) Where are each of these microorganisms active in the human body?

b) What are the signs and symptoms of each disease?

c) Compare G protein coupled receptor mechanism in each of these disease. Explain each mechanism and discuss if they are similar or different.

1) Describe in detail how the liver regulates both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

2) Please explain how the same enzymes within glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are used for both pathways?