The inhalation and exhalation are two characteristics of the respiratory function.

Write an essay in which you clarify the concept of ventilation versus respiration, and explain the characteristics of inspiration and expiration in terms of involved organs and the forces triggering them. (Don’t exceed 800 words.)

The knowledge of muscles and pressures involved in the respiration is fundamental to write this essay.

How are the functions of the accessory digestive organs similar in a shark and mudpuppy?

1. Explain the full mechanism by which our heart pumps blood to the rest of the body including the specific role of phosphatidylinositol plays in calcium sequestration, starting from a signaling molecule. Keep in mind that the heart is a muscle which contracts and relaxes. (10-points)

Your friend tests her snake-wrangling skills on an eastern diamondback rattlesnake and is bitten and injected with venom. In the emergency department, doctors administer the anti-venom (antivenin) CroFab, which contains antibodies to the toxins in the snake venom. Is this an example of active or passive immunity? (explain why). Will this result in long term protection against future rattlesnake bites? Explain.  

Summarize the sources, stimulus for, and effects of these hormones: atrial naturetic factor, angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone.

The most important anatomical/physiological feature optimizing the role of the liver as an interceptor of xenobiotics is:

a: Proximity to the stomach

b: Production of bile as an emulsifier

c: Circulatory links to the lungs

d: The portal circulatory system

A 26-year-old woman reports that she has a severe migraine and has taken six times more than the recommended dose of aspirin for the past 3 days to relieve her headaches. Her plasma pH is 7.24. Which of the following would you expect to find compared with normal?

Put the following steps of neurotransmitter signaling in order from first (1) to last (6). The first one is shown number in order 1-5 for the rest

1. Action potential reaches the synaptic terminal Vessicles full of neurotransmitter fuse with the plasma membrane.

Neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft

Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the dendrite of the receiving neuron.

Ion channels on the dendrites of the receiving neuron open and inhibit or trigger an action potential.

Neurotransmitters are broken down or recycled.

A complete and correct answer will include all organs and tissue types involved, and in what order signals are processed:

Humans reacting to unexpected pain (e.g. touching an unexpectedly hot surface)?

Describe how high dietary sugar diets could promote insulin resistance. Be sure to 1) discuss how dietary sugar gets digested/absorbed 2) explain the fate of glucose into the muscle cell in insulin-sensitive states then how it could lead to insulin resistance as well as 3) identify how sugar interacts with exercise (before, during and immediately after) to foster movement. Highlight cell mechanisms and key hormones within answers when possible.

Discuss the influence of the venous system and arterial system on cardiac function

1. Briefly compare endocrine signaling with synaptic transmission.

2. Compare parasympathetic vs. sympathetic control of vascular smooth muscle. Note similarities and differences including the organization of pathways, pre- and post-ganglionic neurotransmitters, etc.

3. Compare blood flow (perfusion) and air/water flow (ventilation) in fish gills, frog lungs, bird lungs and mammalian lungs. Consider how terms of the Fick Diffusion Equation (write out) are manifest in the design of the exchange surfaces.

4. What forces contribute to movement of solutes from a capillary lumen into tissue spaces and return from tissue spaces to the capillary lumen?

A 12-year-old girl who has been losing weight comes to the doctor, her mother tells the physician that the daughter is always hungry. The mother is sure there is a kidney problem, because her daughter is getting up twice each night to go to the bathroom.

Respiration : 15/min                                        ph:7.35                                             urine ph :5

Blood pressuere:125/80                                WBC: 8200/mm3                          urine glucose:1000mg/gl

Pulse:75                                                               blood glucose:260mm/gl          urine ketones: large

Temperature:37c                                             Albumin:4.0g/l                              urine specific gravity:1,006

1. Why is patient always hungry if she is eating well? Discuss anatomy and physiology
2. Why is getting up to go to the bathroom every night?
3. Give a possible diagnosis
4. What further studies or tests would the doctor likely recommend?

70. You've noticed that your client's right scapula wings while he performs the lowering phase of a push-up. Which of the following correctives would most likely benefit him?

1. Upper trapezius stretch
2. Posterior stability hold with head rotation
3. Hip hinge with mini-band
4. Plank roll

71. The downward dog corrective has been helping your client improve his dumbbell shoulder press technique. Over the weekend he strained his right wrist and it still bothers him. Which of the following steps should you take?

1. Have him attempt the downward dog and rate his wrist pain on a scale of 1-10
2. Choose a completely different corrective
3. Perform the downward dog with his elbows resting on the floor
4. None of the above

72. Research demonstrates a link between weak hip abductors and which of the following?

1. Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS)
2. Strong hip flexion strength
3. Poor hip extension strength
4. None of the above

73. When your client performs the sphinx with reach exercise, why is it important to avoid a shoulder shrug in the support arm?

1. To minimize serratus anterior activation
2. To increase activation of the abdominals
3. To maximize serratus anterior activation
4. To increase activation of the upper trapezius

74. When your client performs the scapular activation drill with the arm held at an upward angle, which of the following positions is most appropriate?

1. A shoulder position far from a position of pain
2. A shoulder position at the first point of pain
3. A shoulder position at the maximum pain point
4. A shoulder position just short of pain

75. Why is it important to avoid telling your client that you're performing a postural assessment?

1. He/she will inevitably stand with better posture than normal
2. He/she will feel embarrassed and will not want to improve posture
3. To protect yourself against a lawsuit
4. None of the above

76. During a sagittal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client stands with his knees slightly flexed. Which of the following does that indicate?

1. His hamstrings are overly active
2. His hip flexors are inhibited
3. He has sufficient glute strength
4. He is a quad dominant person

77. During a frontal plane view postural assessment you notice that your client's left shoulder appears to be elevated/shrugged at rest. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective?

1. Stretch for the left rhomboids
2. Stretch for the left upper trapezius
3. Stretch for the right pectoralis minor
4. Stretch for the left pectoralis

78. A client that demonstrates upper crossed syndrome typically has weakness in which of the following muscle groups?

1. Levator scapulae
2. Upper trapezius
3. Deep neck flexors
4. Pectorals

79. Which of the following negative effects can occur if your client performs a stretch or lacrosse ball mobilization drill while being stressed and in a heightened state of pain?

1. It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation
2. It can engage the sympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation
3. It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and impair tissue relaxation
4. It can engage the parasympathetic nervous system and promote tissue relaxation

80. Stiff suboccipital muscles can impair which of the following cervical movements?

1. Cervical extension
2. Cervical rotation
3. Cervical flexion
4. Both B and C

81. The overhead reach is recommended as one way to assess your client's shoulder function for which of the following reasons?

1. It's one of the least challenging movements for the shoulder complex
2. It doesn't require activation of the deltoid muscle
3. It's one of the most challenging movements for the shoulder complex
4. None of the above

82. If the chin tuck with lacrosse ball loosened the suboccipital muscles, which of the following cervical movements should have a greater range of motion?

1. Cervical rotation
2. Cervical flexion
3. Cervical extension
4. Both A and B

83. Research demonstrates that activating the deep neck flexors can produce which of the following benefits?

1. Less pain in the shoulders
2. Less pain in the neck
3. Less pain in the low back
4. Both A and B

84. Which of the following is a hypothesized benefit of foam roller exercises?

1. Increased overlap of the sarcomeres within muscle
2. Restored water balance in the muscles and fascia
3. Significant reduction in scar tissue
4. Increased protective tension in fascial tissues

85. What is the purpose of performing the t-spine rotation drill from the quadruped position with one supporting arm on the ground?

1. To promote activation of the pectoralis muscle in the supporting arm
2. To minimize t-spine extension
3. To promote activation of the serratus anterior in the supporting arm
4. To promote lumbar flexion

86. Your client was able to improve his exercise technique through the cues you gave him, without any change in load. This indicates an improvement in which of the following?

1. Strength
2. Mobility
3. Motor control
4. None of the above

87. Which muscles are typically overactive in the lower crossed syndrome that was described by Prof. Janda?

1. Hip flexors/thoracolumbar extensors
2. Hip extensors/hip flexors
3. Hip flexors/thoracolumbar flexors
4. Hip extensors/thoracolumbar extensors

88. Which of the following is a position your client should avoid while performing the cat-camel exercise?

1. Lumbar flexion
2. Posterior pelvic tilt
3. Lumbar extension
4. An extreme end-range of motion stretch

89. During the modified Thomas Test assessment for your client's right hip, she demonstrates hip abduction in the resting position. Which of the following does this indicate?

1. Excessive length of the right tensor fascia latae
2. Excessive length of the right iliopsoas
3. Shortening/stiffness of the right tensor fascia latae
4. Shortening/stiffness of the right rectus femoris

90. Which muscle group is the hip thrust exercise intended to strengthen?

1. Peroneals
2. Glutes
3. Hip flexors
4. Abdominals

91. Research demonstrates a relationship between knee pain and which of the following?

1. Strong hip abductors
2. Weak abdominals
3. Stiff hamstrings
4. Weak hip abductors

92. Knee valgus is commonly associated with which of the following compensations?

1. Excessive pronation of the feet
2. Weak abdominals
3. Stiff hamstrings
4. Weak hip abductors

93. Your client, William, sits for many hours each day at his computer. Which of the following compensations are you likely to observe?

1. Posterior pelvic tilt
2. Shortened hip flexors
3. Both A and B
4. None of the above

94. Your client is a professional basketball player with a 40" vertical jump and he experiences no low back or knee pain. You assess his hamstring mobility at the popliteal angle and determine that it's less than normal. What should you do?

1. Recommend exercises to strengthen his hip flexors
2. Leave his hamstrings alone
3. Recommend static stretches for his hamstrings
4. None of the above

95. During a sagittal plane postural assessment you observe anteriorly rotated shoulders. Which of the following correctives is most likely to benefit the client?

1. Stretches for the middle trapezius
2. Strengthening exercises for the pectorals
3. Stretches for the rhomboids
4. Stretches for the pectorals

96. When your client lacks dorsiflexion, which of the following compensations is common to observe during a squat?

1. Poor hip extension
2. Knee valgus
3. Excessive anterior trunk shift
4. Excessive lumbar lordosis

97. Maximal contraction of the hip extensors results in relaxation of the hip flexors. This is an example of what neural arrangement?

1. Reciprocal innervation
2. Stretch reflex
3. Reciprocal activation
4. None of the above

98. Activating the hip abductors has been shown to increase mobility of which of the following muscle groups?

1. Lats
2. Abdominals
3. Calves
4. Hamstrings

99. Iliotibial band syndrome (ITBS) is caused by which of the following?

1. Strong hip extensors
2. Stiff hamstrings
3. An overuse injury of the IT band
4. Excessive strength of the hip abductors

100. What is the optimal depth you should train your client to squat from without pain?

1. The depth required for the client's life or sport
2. A half squat since anything lower isn't necessary
3. The height of a standard chair
4. A full squat where the hamstrings touch the calves