How does the structure of the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule fit its function.
        please make it clear . Thanks

describe the impact of acquired brain injury in canada.include a minimum of 3 details with supporting information

5. You are consuming a food item that contains carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids, and a substance A stipulated to not be digestible by human enzymes, but digestible by bacterial enzymes into substance B. Discuss where and how each of the five nutrient types will be digested (multiple locations may be required), and how their absorbable components (monosaccharides, fatty acids, amino acids, nucleotides, and substance B) will be absorbed by the body. Include in your response a complete review of the entire digestive system (not just the digestive tract), including all physical structures the food item will encounter, all digestive secretions (including a breakdown of all enzymatic and non-enzymatic components, and their functions) the food item will occur, and the tissue/organ structures responsible for generating those secretions.

1. Salmonella entericaTyphi is located in the ______________ of chronically infected carriers.
   1. Colon
   2. Large intestine
   3. Small intestine
   4. Gallbladder
2. Which strain of E. coliis the cause of “traveler’s diarrhea?”
   1. Enterophatogenic (EPEC)
   2. Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
   3. Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)
   4. Enteroaggregtive (EAEC)
3. Listeria monocytogenesinfection of pregnant women can result in?
   1. Miscarriage
   2. Stillbirth
   3. Premature labor
   4. All of the above
4. The most common source of botulism is…
   1. undercooked meat, poultry, or fish
   2. ready-to-eat meat and unpasteurized dairy
   3. undercooked eggs
   4. improperly home-canned goods
5. TRUE or FALSE: Norovirus can be shed in the feces up to two weeks after symptoms are gone.
   1. True
   2. False
6. One week after returning to the United States after visiting family in India a college student went to the campus health clinic with mild fever, a headache, and general malaise. The doctor prescribed Tylenol and rest. The symptoms did not resolve, and the student returned the clinic a week later with high fever, delirium, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. What is your diagnosis?
   1. Typhoid fever caused by Salmonella enterica typhi
   2. Salmonellosis caused by Salmonella enterica thyphimurium
   3. Cholera caused by Vibrio cholerae
   4. Traveler’s diarrhea caused by Enterotoxigenic E.coli(ETEC)
7. “Rice water” stool is a characteristic symptom of…
   1. E. colifood infection
   2. Typhoid fever
   3. Cholera
   4. Norovirus
8. While visiting her grandparent’s farm a 12-year old girl ate sunny side up eggs and toast for breakfast. The girl had helped her grandma collect the eggs that morning from the chicken coupe. Before super the child started complaining of a headache, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea. The child’s grandma gave her Gatorade, put her in bed to rest, and monitored her closely for the next two days after which her symptoms were gone. The child experienced a mild fever for the next two days but otherwise felt fine. The child most likely had?
   1. Staphylococcal food poisoning caused by Staphylococcus aureus
   2. Salmonellosis caused by Salmonella enterica thyphimurium
   3. “The stomach flu” caused by Clostridium prefringenes
   4. Botulism cased by caused by Clostridium botulinum
9. A 70-year old man was admitted to the hospital for kidney failure and bloody diarrhea. However he did not have a fever, and had not history of renal or kidney issues. He was given supportive care and monitored closely. Unfortunately, due to is age the man did not survive the illness. Upon questioning the family at the hospital the next day. The patient’s granddaughter said her granddad like to have the occasional White Castle burger as a “treat.” What is your diagnosis?
   1. Enterotoxigenic E. coli(ETEC)
   2. Enteropathogenic E. coli(EPEC)
   3. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli(EHEC)
   4. Enteroaggregative E. coli(EAEC)
10. During the Listeria monocytogenesinfectious cycle?
    1. The bacterium survives inside the phagolysosome
    2. The bacterium creates comet-like tails from host actin to propel itself into nearby uninfected cells
    3. Creates an exotoxin that ruptures gastric epithelial cells
11. The best way to prevent foodborne illness is…
    1. Wash hands before and after handling food
    2. Properly cook meat to appropriate temperature
    3. Wash fruits and vegetables
    4. Refrigerate leftover foods ASAP
    5. All of the above
12. Campylobacter food infection results from consuming…
    1. Undercooked poultry or pork
    2. Raw eggs
    3. Unpasteurized milk
    4. Raw shellfish
    5. A and D
13. An exotoxin that acts on the small intestine is called an
    1. Endotoxin
    2. Enterotoxin
    3. Neurotoxin
    4. Alphatoxin

1. Staphylococcus aureus is a common causative agent of foodborne disease because it
   1. Tolerates many common high-salt and high-fat foods
   2. Is present in some humans that work in food preparation
   3. Produces several heat-stable enterotoxins
   4. All of the above
2. EHEC produces a toxin called, ____________, that can cause kidney failture.
   1. Endotoxin
   2. Exotoxin
   3. Verotoxin
   4. High fever
3. Ingesting food containing bacterial toxins results in _________, whereas ingesting food contaminated with viable bacteria that replicate in the body results in __________.  
   1. Food infection / food poisoning
   2. Food poisoning / food infection
   3. Both result in food poisoning
   4. Both result in food infection
4. Listeria monocytogenesis?
   1. Acid-tolerant
   2. Cold-tolerant
   3. Salt-tolerant
   4. Acid-, cold-, and salt-tolerant
5. The most common source of Escherichia coli(EHEC) food poisoning is contaminated
   1. Meat
   2. Fruits
   3. Grains
   4. Milk and milk products
6. Legionella pneumophila is generally transmitted by
   1. Ingesting contaminated food
   2. Drinking contaminated water
   3. Inhaling aerosols from contaminated water in coolers, pools, and domestic water systems
   4. Person-to-person contact
7. Wastewater is considered…?
   1. sewage
   2. water runoff from industrial plants
   3. bath water, dish water, et.
   4. all of the above
8. Clostridium perfringens food poisoning leads to diarrhea, because the
   1. toxin causes the shedding of the intestinal lining.
   2. permeability of the intestinal epithelium is altered by the toxin it produces.
   3. disease causes such extreme thirst that the patient drinks more water than can be absorbed.
   4. organism multiplies more rapidly than the immune system can handle.
9. All of the organisms below require a HIGHinfectious dose to cause disease, EXCEPT?
   1. Vibrio cholerae
   2. Salmonella entericaTyphi
   3. Norovirus
   4. Clostridium perfringens
10. The symptoms of cholera are caused by?
    1. Active replication of Vibrio cholerain the small intestine
    2. Ruffling of host cell cytoplasmic membrane
    3. Cholera toxin induces massive water movement into the intestinal lumen
    4. Cholera toxin blocks release of water into intestinal lumen

Extreme challenges to an animal’s physiology allow us to explore and better understand the function of systems in the body.   Please address the following questions regarding the initial reflexive changes (before acclimatization) that occur in response to ascent to altitude.

A) Outline the initial global reflexes that occur in response to the low PO₂ at high altitude. Be sure to include all components of the reflex arcs for cardiovascular and respiratory systems.

B) Compare these global reflexes to local reflexes occurring in the lungs.

A)

Based on what you know about respiratory and cardiovascular physiology, describe in what ways (how) the anatomy and physiology of these artic mammals might be different from mammals from warmer climates to compensate for this?

B) Briefly describe why what you propose in (c) is adaptive for these large arctic mammals.

1. An individual has low blood oxygen levels, due to insufficient numbers of circulating red blood cells. (The erythrocytes are completely healthy; there’s just not enough of them.) Describe the processes by which the body stimulates the production of new erythrocytes. Your response should include a review of all body cells and structures capable of detecting low oxygen levels, the body responses that stimulate erythrocyte production, and the actual synthesis and maturation process in the red bone marrow. In addition, any short-term body processes that compensate for the low blood oxygen levels not involving erythrocyte production should be discussed in detail as well.

2. An individual has low blood glucose levels—not low enough to cause symptoms, but enough to cause the body to attempt a restoration to normal levels. Describe all processes by which the body induces the increase of blood sugar levels. Your response should include a review of all body cells and structures capable of detecting low glucose levels, the body responses that stimulate glucose production, and all processes for the actual synthesis of glucose. (While this is not a biochemistry class, a thorough discussion of the two major glucose production pathways is expected; a couple sentences for each will not suffice for full credit.)

1). Type II diabetes may result from

        a). obesity, b). autoimmune attack on alpha cells, c). autoimmune attack on beta cells, d). autoimmune attack on alveolar epithelial cells, e). none of the above

2).  In what week of human development does gastrulation occur?

       a). first, b). fourth, c). third, d). second, e). fifth

23).  The wet form of macular degeneration may be slowed by

      a). lycopene,  b). vitamin K, c). lutein, d). anti-VEGF drugs, e). c and d

Which of the following contains only C, H and O?

       a). glucagon, b). insulin, c). fiber, d). sucrose, e). c and d

Oogenesis is the biological process through which an egg forms. Without addressing the details of this process, discuss the different types of follicles that the ovaries contain and allow the development.

41a. What is the purpose of pulling up on one end of the towel during the cervical rotation with towel corrective?

1. Promote cervical flexion
2. Restrict motion of the cervical facet joints
3. Promote upglide of the cervical facet joints on that side
4. Promote downglide of the cervical facet joints on that side

b. A stiff/shortened pectoralis minor causes which compensation of the scapula?

1. Posterior tilt
2. Retraction
3. Anterior tilt
4. Depression

c. Regarding the ball wall push with hip hinge corrective, what is the purpose of using a progressively smaller ball over time?

1. To create a more stable contact point
2. To create a more unstable contact point
3. To increase activation of the pectoralis muscles
4. None of the above

d. What muscles are primarily targeted when your client performs the posterior shoulder ball roll?

1. Rhomboids and lats
2. Serratus anterior and rhomboids
3. Infraspinatus and teres minor/major
4. Supraspinatus and upper trapezius

e. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt is typically associated with weakness/inhibition of which two muscle groups?

1. Thoracolumbar extensors and hamstrings
2. Glutes and abdominals
3. Hamstrings and hip flexors
4. Quadriceps and calves

f. Why is static stretching of the hamstrings not recommended for a person with anterior pelvic tilt?

1. It could create more pelvic instability because the hamstrings are "locked long"
2. Because the hamstrings already have plenty of mobility
3. It could create more pelvic instability since the hamstrings are "locked short"
4. Because the hamstrings should never be stretched

g. For a client with excessive posterior pelvic tilt, what is the purpose of the cat-camel exercise?

1. Reduce spinal friction and restrict anterior pelvic tilt
2. Increase spinal friction and promote anterior pelvic tilt
3. Reduce spinal friction and promote anterior pelvic tilt
4. Increase spinal friction and promote posterior pelvic tilt

h. Why is it important to learn how to identify compensations seen during the modified Thomas Test?

1. Because most people have excessive mobility of the anterior hip muscles
2. Because most people have stiff hamstrings and weak glutes
3. Because the test identifies poor lumbopelvic control
4. Because most people have short/stiff anterior hip muscles

i. Your client is performing the foam roll mobility drill for her right quadriceps. How should you instruct her during the drill?

1. "Your right quadriceps should stay fully contracted."
2. "Your right quadriceps should remain completely relaxed."
3. "Your right quadriceps should stay partially contracted."
4. None of the above

j. Your client demonstrates right knee valgus while performing a lunge or squat. Which of the following muscles is likely to be overactive and have sore trigger points?

1. Left gluteus medius
2. Right gluteus medius
3. Right tensor fascia latae (TFL)
4. Right vastusmedius

Please answer all 10 parts to question

1a. Tendons and ligaments are similar because they both have:

1. a limited blood supply and low metabolism
2. an abundant blood supply and low metabolism
3. a limited blood supply and high metabolism
4. an abundant blood supply and high metabolism

b. What is the name of the outer layer of connective tissue on skeletal muscle?

1. perimysium
2. epimysium
3. endomysium
4. intermediate fascia

c. The functional units of skeletal muscle that allow it shorten are:

1. tendons
2. fascicles
3. sarcomeres
4. perimysium

d. In terms of muscle actions at the knee joint, the quadriceps and hamstrings are:

1. agonists
2. antagonists
3. synergists
4. none of the above

e. Skeletal muscle shortens when:

1. actin and myosin bind and slide past each other
2. it receives a signal from the brain
3. actin and myosin detach from each other
4. none of the above

f. A muscular force-couple occurs when:

1. actin and myosin bind and slide past each other
2. two or more muscles concurrently produce force in the same direction to produce one movement
3. actin and myosin detach from each other
4. two or more muscles concurrently produce force in different directions to produce one movement

g. When lifting the arm overhead, impingement of the subacromial space is avoided when:

1. synergistic actions occur between the pectorals and supraspinatus
2. a muscular force-couple occurs between the deltoid and supraspinatus
3. synergistic actions occur between the lats and deltoid
4. a muscular force-couple occurs between the deltoid and subscapularis

h. During a squat, your client's knees buckle inward as she ascends. This problem is most likely due to:

1. weakness of the hip adductors and external rotators
2. weakness of the hip flexors
3. weakness of the hip adductors and internal rotators
4. weakness of the hip abductors and external rotators

i. After a workout, your client mentions that he feels a deep, nervy pain in his shoulder that radiates down to his hand. You first course of action should be to:

1. explain that it's normal and no cause for concern
2. tell him to get cleared from a physician or physical therapist before your next workout
3. stretch his shoulder and see if it alleviates the pain
4. make a note in your training log to decrease the training loads for the next workout

j. Your new client mentions that he has left shoulder pain when pressing a 50-pound dumbbell overhead. During your initial movement assessment, what is the most acceptable first step?

1. Have him grab a 50-pound dumbbell and demonstrate the movement
2. Have him grab a 30-pound dumbbell and demonstrate the movement
3. Instruct him to mimic the left shoulder movement without any weight in hand
4. Have him squeeze a ball between his elbows

Please answer all 10 parts to question

state and explain external factors that affect the normal body temperature of a human being.