Question

Is the claim that more innocent people die when we do not have capital punishment more likely true or false?

Answer 1

Logically, the above statement is more likely True.

But to validate the statement, some data points are required which can statistically prove the type of relationship.

For example, let us consider that Death of Innocent People be the Dependent Variable and Capital Punishment be a Independent Variable. Let us assume that we have considered 50 countries in this regard, If there is Capital Punishment, then the rating will 1, else 2. The number of deaths of innocent people can be obtained from any public domain or by doing a proper investigation. We can also consider an another variable like cause of death as an independent variable in addition to the above one. If the cause of death is natural, then rate it 1, if it is murder (crime)/evidence of a crime, then rate it 2 and so on.

Later on a Two Factor Anova can be performed in this regard which can prove whether the assumption made is true or not.

At last post hoc test can also be performed in order to check which of the following independent variables are mostly responsible for the maximum deaths of innocent people and then appropriate conclusions can be made.

Kindly provide a data set in this regard in order to check whether the above statement is true statistically.