In: Finance
Burton, a manufacturer of snowboards, is considering replacing an existing piece of equipment with a more sophisticated machine. The following information is given. · The proposed machine will cost $120,000 and have installation costs of $20,000. It will be depreciated using a 3 year MACRS recovery schedule. It can be sold for $60,000 after three years of use (before tax; at the end of year 3).
The existing machine was purchased two years ago for $95,000 (including installation). It is being depreciated using a 3 year MACRS recovery schedule. It can be sold today for $20,000. It can be used for three more years, but after three more years it will have no market value.
The earnings before taxes and depreciation (EBITDA) are as follows: o New machine: Year 1: 133,000, Year 2: 96,000, Year 3: 127,000 o Existing machine: Year 1: 84,000, Year 2: 70,000, Year 3: 74,000
Burton pays 40 percent taxes on ordinary income and capital gains, and uses a WACC of 14%. · The maximum payback period allowed is 3 years.
They expect a large increase in sales so their Net Working Capital will increase by $20,000 when they buy the machine and it will be recovered at the end of the project life.
a. Calculate the initial investment required for this project.
b. Determine the incremental after-tax operating cash flows
c. Find the terminal cash flow for the project
d. Find the Discounted Payback period, NPV, IRR, and MIRR.
e. Should the new machine be purchased? Why or why not?
All financials below are in $.
For the old machine, it has completed two years of depreciation.
Value remaining after 2 years of depreciation = (1 - 33.33% - 44.45%) = 22.22% = 22.22% x 95,000 = 21,109
Sale Price today = 20,000
Hence, post tax salvage value = Salvage value - (Salvage value - tax basis) x tax rate = 20,000 - (20,000 - 21,109) x 40% = 20,443.60
a. Calculate the initial investment required for this project.
Initial investment = Purchase price of new machine + installment cost of new machine - Post tax salvage value of old machine + investment in working capital = 120,000 + 20,000 - 20,443.60 + 20,000 = 139,556.40
b. Determine the incremental after-tax operating cash flows
Year | Linkage | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 |
Depreciation rate for new machine | d1 | 33.33% | 44.45% | 14.81% | |
Depreciable base | A1 | 140,000 | |||
EBITDA | Given | 133,000 | 96,000 | 127,000 | |
[-] Depreciation | D1 = A1 x d1 | (46,662) | (62,230) | (20,734) | |
EBIT | EBITDA - D1 | 86,338 | 33,770 | 106,266 | |
NOPAT | EBIT x (1 - 40%) | 51,803 | 20,262 | 63,760 | |
OCF | C1 = NOPAT + D1 | 98,465 | 82,492 | 84,494 | |
Old Machine Cost | A2 | 95,000 | |||
Depreciation rate | d2 | 14.81% | 7.41% | 0% | |
EBITDA | Given | 84,000 | 70,000 | 74,000 | |
[-] Depreciation | D2 = A2 x d2 | (14,070) | (7,040) | - | |
EBIT | EBITDA - D2 | 69,931 | 62,961 | 74,000 | |
NOPAT | EBIT x (1 - 40%) | 41,958 | 37,776 | 44,400 | |
OCF | C2 = NOPAT + D2 | 56,028 | 44,816 | 44,400 | |
Incremental cash flows | C= C1 - C2 | 42,437 | 37,676 | 40,094 |
Part (c)
Terminal cash flows = Post tax salvage value new machine + release of working capital - opportunity cost of salvage value of old machine
Post tax salvage value of new machine = 60,000 - (60,000 - 140,000 x 7.41% ) x 40% = 40,149.60
Hence, terminal cash flow = 40,149.60 + 20,000 - 0 = 60,149.60
Part (d)
Cash flows can now be arranged as shown below.
Discount rate, R = 14%
Discount factor for year N = (1 + R)-N
Discounted payback period = Never, the project never achieves break even on discounted cash flow over t = 3 years
NPV, IRR and MIRR can be seen in the table above in yellow colored cells. Adjacent cells in blue contain the excel formula.
Part (e)
NPV is negative.
Payback period is greater than allowed limit.
IRR < WACC
Hence, the new machine should not be purchased.