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In: Physics

How do you normalize the function psi= eim(phi) between 0 and 2pi?

How do you normalize the function psi= eim(phi) between 0 and 2pi?

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Expert Solution

So here's the deal. First and formost, you should probably ask a question like this on physicsforums.com since people on yahoo are not legit authorities on this matter... however I think I can still help.

To normalize your wave function all you need to do is integral((psi*)(psi), dV) = 1 where psi* is your complex conjugate of your wave function psi. Solve for the unknown constant and sub it back into your equation.

Then to show that psi(1) and psi(2) are orthoganol ( and I'm guessing you are showing they are orthoganol over a volume) you have to set up an integral as such ... integral( psi(1)psi(2),dV) where dV = R^2Sin(theta)d(theta)d(r)d(phi). Your integral goes to zero if they are orthoganol... there however seems to be a shortcut in this problem. Do not evaluate the radial part of the integral first ... instead try integrate the angular component first because that will go to zero which will save you time since you do not need to evaluate the radial part of your integral.


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