In: Physics
How do you normalize the function psi= eim(phi) between 0 and 2pi?
So here's the deal. First and formost, you should probably ask a
question like this on physicsforums.com since people on yahoo are
not legit authorities on this matter... however I think I can still
help.
To normalize your wave function all you need to do is
integral((psi*)(psi), dV) = 1 where psi* is your complex conjugate
of your wave function psi. Solve for the unknown constant and sub
it back into your equation.
Then to show that psi(1) and psi(2) are orthoganol ( and I'm
guessing you are showing they are orthoganol over a volume) you
have to set up an integral as such ... integral( psi(1)psi(2),dV)
where dV = R^2Sin(theta)d(theta)d(r)d(phi). Your integral goes to
zero if they are orthoganol... there however seems to be a shortcut
in this problem. Do not evaluate the radial part of the integral
first ... instead try integrate the angular component first because
that will go to zero which will save you time since you do not need
to evaluate the radial part of your integral.