Tranquilizing drugs that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity often effectively reduce people ssubjective experience of intense...

Tranquilizing drugs that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity often effectively reduce people ssubjective experience of intense fear and anxiety. Which of the major theories of emotion is the most consistent with the emotion reducing effects of such tranquilizers? Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining these effects? Why?

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Tranquilizing drugs that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity often effectively reduce people ssubjective experience of intense fear and anxiety. Which of the major theories of emotion is the most consistent with the emotion reducing effects of such tranquilizers? Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining these effects? Why?

This would be explained by the two factor theory as it would be explaining that there has to be physical arousal and a person should be able to label it cognitively. If a person exposed to a tranquilizer drug there will not be enough physical arousal. Also, there would be a reduction in the ability of a person to label an emotion cognitively.

According to the James-Lang theory, a person feels emotions because of their physical responses as well as experiences. This will be the most difficult for explaining the drug effects since, a person might be having minor physical responses but there will definitely not be able any cognitive labelling to those emotions.

Hayet Jeridi answered 9 months ago

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