In: Finance
Queenstake Resources stock is currently selling for $30.00 a share but is expected to either decrease to $27 or increase to $33 a share over the next year. The risk-free rate is 4 percent. What is the current value of a 1-year call option with an exercise price of $30?
$1.63 |
||
$1.71 |
||
$1.94 |
||
$2.02 |
||
$1.85 |
Solution :
Calculations as per the Binomial Options pricing model for obtaining the value of a one year call option :
Sl.No. |
Particulars |
Notation |
Value |
1 |
Spot Price |
SP0 |
$ 30.00 |
2 |
Exercise Price |
EP |
$ 30.00 |
3 |
Expected future Spot price – Lower Limit - FP1 |
FP1 |
$ 27.00 |
4 |
Expected future Spot price – Upper Limit FP2 |
FP2 |
$ 33.00 |
5 |
Value of call at lower limit [ Action = Lapse, Since FP1 < EP. Therefore value = Nil ] |
Cd |
NIL |
6 |
Value of call at upper limit [ Action = Exercise, Since FP2 < EP. Therefore value = ( $ 33.00 - $ 30.00 = $ 3.00 ) ] |
Cu |
$ 3.00 |
7 |
Weight for the lower scenario [FP1 / SP0 ] = ( 27 / 30 ) = |
d |
0.9 |
8 |
Weight for the upper scenario [FP2 / SP0 ] = ( 33 / 30 ) = |
u |
1.1 |
9 |
Risk free rate of Return |
r |
0.04 |
10 |
Duration of the call |
t |
1 Year |
11 |
Future value factor (Continuous Compounding factor) = er * t = e0.04 * 1 = e0.04 = 1.0408 ( Value taken from e tables) |
f |
1.0408 |
As per the Binomial Option Pricing formula the value of a call is given by the following formula:
Value of a Call = [ ( Cu * [ (f-d) / (u-d) ] ) + ( Cd * [ (u-f) / (u-d) ] ) ] / f
Therefore applying the values from the table above to the formula we now have:
= [ ( 3*[ (1.0408 - 0.9) / (1.1 – 0.9) ] ) + ( 0 *[ (1.1 – 1.0408) / ( 1.1 – 0.9) ] ) ] / 1.0408
= [ ( 3* [ (0.1408) / ( 0.2 ) ] ] / 1.0408
= [ 3 * 0.704 ] / 1.0408
= 2.1 / 1.0408
= 2.0176
= 2.02 ( when rounded off to two decimal places )
Therefore value of a call as per the Binomial Option pricing formula is $ 2.02
Thus the solution is Option 4 = $ 2.02