In: Finance
GoodLife stock is currently selling for $25.00 a share but is expected to either decrease to $22.50 or increase to $27.50 a share over the next year. The risk-free rate is 3 percent. What is the current value of a 1-year call option with an exercise price of $25?
$1.35 |
||
$1.58 |
||
$1.77 |
||
$1.94 |
||
$2.03 |
Solution :
Calculations as per the Binomial Options pricing model for obtaining the value of a call:
Sl.No. |
Particulars |
Notation |
Value |
1 |
Spot Price |
SP0 |
$ 25.00 |
2 |
Exercise Price |
EP |
$ 25.00 |
3 |
Expected future Spot price – Lower Limit - FP1 |
FP1 |
$ 22.50 |
4 |
Expected future Spot price – Upper Limit FP2 |
FP2 |
$ 27.50 |
5 |
Value of call at lower limit [ Action = Lapse, Since FP1 < EP. Therefore value = Nil ] |
Cd |
NIL |
6 |
Value of call at upper limit [ Action = Exercise, Since FP2 > EP. Therefore value = ( $ 27.50 - $ 25.00 = $ 2.50 ) ] |
Cu |
$ 2.50 |
7 |
Weight for the lower scenario [FP1 / SP0 ] = ( 22.50 / 25 ) = |
d |
0.9 |
8 |
Weight for the upper scenario [FP2 / SP0 ] = ( 27.50 / 25 ) = |
u |
1.1 |
9 |
Risk free rate |
r |
0.03 |
10 |
Duration of the call |
t |
1 Year |
11 |
Future value factor (Continuous Compounding factor) = er * t = e0.03 * 1 = e0.03 = 1.0305 ( Value taken from e tables) |
f |
1.0305 |
As per the Binomial Option Pricing formula the value of a call is given by the following formula:
Value of a Call = [ ( Cu * [(f-d)/(u-d) ] ) + ( Cd * [ (u-f)/(u-d) ] ) ] / f
Therefore applying the values from the table above to the formula we now have:
= [ ( 2.50*[ (1.0305 - 0.9)/(1.1 – 0.9) ] ) + ( 0 *[ (1.1 – 1.0305 )/( 1.1 – 0.9) ] ) ] / 1.0305
= [ ( 2.50* [ (0.1305)/( 0.2 ) ] ] / 1.0305
= [ 2.50 * 0.6525 ] / 1.0305
= 1.631250 / 1.0305
= 1.582969
= 1.58 ( when rounded off to two decimal places )
Therefore value of a call as per the Binomial Option pricing formula is $ 1.58
Thus the solution is Option 2 = $ 1.58