In: Finance
Show all work to support your final numerical answers, and carefully label all numbers with the appropriate units to receive full credit. Quote all ex-rates with both currency units ($/£) to 4 decimal places. Please do not copy payoff diagrams directly from the lecture notes. Full essays of a paragraph or more are required.
Current one-year interest rate for USD LIBOR: 5.20%
Current one-year interest rate for Sterling (UK) LIBOR: 4.25%
Current spot ex-rate (S): = $1.5200/£
Current one-year forward rate (F) = $1.5428/£
1. (3 points) a. Given the information above, is the British pound selling at a premium or discount? How much (round to two decimal places, e.g. 1.35%)?
b. Is Interest Rate Parity (IRP) holding? Why or why not? Explain in an essay, and show a calculation to support your answer using this IRP formula: ius = iuk +/- %£
c. Given the information above, how could you make arbitrage profits, starting with either $5 million or £5 million? Calculate and report your profits, and explain each calculation in words.
1(a) | Given F is higher then s - | ||||||||
That is we have to pay more $ for 1 pound. | |||||||||
Therefore $ is at discount and Pound is at a premium. | |||||||||
Premium = | (F-S)/S x 100 x 12/n | ||||||||
(1.5428-1.52)/1.52 x 100 x 12/12 | |||||||||
1.5% | |||||||||
(b) | IRP says That - | F/S = | (1+ia)/(1+ib) | ||||||
F = Forward Rate | |||||||||
S = Spot Rate | |||||||||
ia = | Interest rate of Dollor | ||||||||
ib = | Interest rate on Pound | ||||||||
If this equation holds good then the exchange rate across the globe will be the same. | |||||||||
ia = | 5.20% | ||||||||
ib = | 4.25% | ||||||||
s = | $/Pound | 1.52 | |||||||
F = | $/Pound | 1.5428 | |||||||
Calculate the F as per IRP = | |||||||||
F/1.5428 = | 1.052/1.0425 | (Assuming compounded annually) | |||||||
F = | 1.009113 | x 1.5428 | |||||||
F = | 1.5569 | ||||||||
Here the Should be Fwd rate is not equal to the actual fwd rate, that imply that the IRP does not hold. | |||||||||
(c ) | Here the Should be Fwd rate is not equal to the actual fwd rate, there is a opportunity for arbitrage. | ||||||||
As we can see the actual F is lower then the F that should have prevaled, that menas the pound can be purchsed at a lower rate and $ can be sold at a higher rate. | |||||||||
Therefore we should sell $ forward and buy Pound instead. That means we invest in $ and borrow Pound to make profit(Riskless). | |||||||||
Stepts in Arbitrage - | |||||||||
Step 1 = | Borrow Pound 5000000 today at 4.25% for 1 year | ||||||||
Pound payable at the end of Year = | 5000000 x 1.0425 = | £ 52,12,500.00 | |||||||
Step 2 = | Convert Pound to $ today using exchange rate 1.52 | ||||||||
5000000 x 1.52 = | $ 76,00,000.00 | ||||||||
Step 3 = | Invest these $ for 1 year at 5.2% | ||||||||
$ inflow at the end of year | 7600000 x 1.052 | ||||||||
€ 79,95,200.00 | |||||||||
Step 4 = | Cover this amount using forward rate- | ||||||||
Sell $ 1 year forward at 1.5428/pound | |||||||||
Pound receivable at the end of year = | |||||||||
3460526.32/1.5428 = | £ 52,43,441.76 | ||||||||
Profit = | $ Receivable | £ 52,43,441.76 | |||||||
- $ payable | £ 52,12,500.00 | ||||||||
Profit - | £ 30,941.76 | ||||||||