In: Finance
Given Par rates p(1)=2.00%, p(2) =3.25%, p(3)=4.25%. p(4)=5.10%.
1) Since the cash-flows for period 1 are directly discounted at rate p(1)
r(1) = p(1) = 2.00%
r(2) = [(1+p(1))*(1+p(2))^(1/2) ] -1
r(2) = [(1.02*1.0325)^(1/2)]-1 = 0.0262
r(2) = 2.62%
r(3) = [(1+p(1))*(1+p(2)*(1+p(3))^(1/3) ] -1
r(3) = [(1.02*1.0325*1.0425)^(1/3)]-1 = 0.0316
r(3) = 3.16%
r(4) = [(1+p(1))*(1+p(2)*(1+p(3)*(1+p(4))^(1/4) ] -1
r(4) = [(1.02*1.0325*1.0425*1.0510)^(1/4)]-1 = 0.0364
r(4) = 3.64%
2)
The bonds pays a coupon of $60 annually for 4 years and par value $1000 at the end of 4 years
The bond price can be calculated by discounting the annual cassh-flows by the spot rates
Year | Cash-flow | Spot rate for the year | PV of the cash-flow | PV of the cash-flow formula |
1 | 60 | 2% | 58.82352941 | Y6/((1+Z6)^X6) |
2 | 60 | 2.62% | 56.97537991 | Y7/((1+Z7)^X7) |
3 | 60 | 3.16% | 54.65340822 | Y8/((1+Z8)^X8) |
4 | 1060 | 3.64% | 918.7476643 | Y9/((1+Z9)^X9) |
1089.199982 |
The total of Present value (PV) is the bond-price = $1089.20
3)
The YTM is the rate at which all the cash-flows of the bond are discounted to arrive at the current price
Solve this using a financial calculator
PV= -1089.2
PMT= 60
FV=1000
N=4
CPT I/Y, we get
I/Y =3.568
Calculating for YTM, we get YTM= 3.568%