In: Computer Science
How to prove f(n)=O(n) for any integer ⩾1, if f(1)=1 and f(n)=2f(⌊n/2⌋)+1 for n⩾2?
Do you need induction? If so, how do you do it?
Dear Learner,
The solution to your question is in the attached photos. Please refer to them for the same
We have used the method of induction for the proof
I hope I have explained the question the way you were expecting. If you still have any doubts or want any further explanation, feel free to ask us in the comment section.
Please leave a like if this was helpful.
Thanks,
Happy Studying.