Let A and B be sets. Then we denote the set of functions with
domain A and codomain B as B^A. In other words, an element f∈B^A is
a function f:A→B.
Prove: Let ?,?∈?^? (that is, ? and ? are
real-valued functions with domain ?) and define a relation ≡ on ?^?
by ?≡?⟺?(0)=?(0). (That is, ? and ? are equivalent if and only if
they share the same value at ?=0) Then ≡ is an equivalence relation
on ?^?.
Prove:...