In: Finance
The tables below present expected free cash flow related data for XYZ for Year 1 and selected balance sheet data as of Year 0. XYZ has reached the steady state growth phase and XYZ’s WACC is 8%.
Year 0 Data
Debt |
4,000 |
Shares outstanding |
400 |
Year 1 Data
NOPLAT |
4,500 |
Free Cash Flow |
1,200 |
CAPEX |
130 |
You expect that XYZ would grow at 2.0% per year in perpetuity. What
is XYZ’s intrinsic value per share.
A. |
67.5 |
|
B. |
40 |
|
C. |
75 |
|
D. |
50 |
As per Gordon model, value of firm= Expected free cashflow/(cost of capital-growth) | ||
So value of firm= | 1200/(0.08-0.02) | |
= | $ 20,000.00 | |
Value of equity = | Value of firm - marker value of debt | |
20000-4000 | ||
$ 16,000.00 | ||
Shares outstanding= | 400.00 | |
Value per share | $ 40.00 | (16000/400) |
So the correct answer is option B i.e. $40.