In: Finance
The current price of a stock is $48. In 1 year, the price will be either $55 or $31. The annual risk-free rate is 6.6%. Find the price of a call option on the stock that has a strike price of $50 and that expires in 1 year. ( Use daily compounding.)
Inputs
P0 = ? u = ?
X = ? d = ?
Cu = ? Pu = ?
Cd = ? Pd = ?
| Use the Binomial Model 4-step approach | ||||
| Step 1 | Ns | = | ||
| Step 2 | Payoff | = | ||
| Step 3 | PV(payoff) | = | ||
| Step 4 | Price for N shares | = | ||
| Vc | = | |||
| Use the Binomial Model Formula Approach (single-period, thus n=1) | ||||
| ert/n | = | |||
| πu | = | |||
| πd | = | |||
| Vc | = | |||
| Use the same Binomial Formula to price an option with the same chararistics but with strike price of $45. | |||||||
| Cu | = | ||||||
| Cd | = | ||||||
| Vc | = | ||||||


as per binomial model binomial refers to two value a stock can take at the end of the period.
in this approach the assumpion is that investing in such stock to have the risk of invesing in a risk free asset. since we are assuming investing in such a stockand investing in risk free asset to be of same rik, they should giv same rate.
mathamaticlly p*Cu+(1-p)Cd=S*e^rt
p= probbiity
Cu=above the stock price
Cd=below the stock price
s=stock current price
value of call= present value of (p*Cu+(1-p)Cd)
here cu= max(cu-x,0)
cd=max(cd-X,0)
value of put =present value of (p*Cu+(1-p)Cd)
here cu=max(x-cu,0)
cd=max(x-cd,0)
soution to the problem are attached below.