In: Finance
The current price of stock XYZ is 100. In one year, the stock price will either be 120 or 80. The annually compounded risk-free interest rate is 10%. i. Calculate the no-arbitrage price of an at-the-money European put option on XYZ expiring in one year. ii. Suppose that an equivalent call option on XYZ is also trading in the market at a price of 10. Determine if there is a mis-pricing. If there is a mis-pricing, demonstrate how you would take advantage of the arbitrage opportunity.
Answer (i) | ||||
XYZ Current Price | S | 100 | ||
Strike Price | E | 100 | ||
Risk-free Rate | Rf | 10% | ||
Up Factor | u | 1.2 | ||
Down Factor | d | 0.8 | ||
Up Price | uS | 120 | ||
down Price | dS | 80 | ||
R | (1+Rf)^1 | 1.1 | ||
Let Take upside probability = p | ||||
Risk Neutral Probability = p = (R - d) / (u-d) | ||||
Risk Neutral Probability = p = (1.1-0.80) / (1.20-0.80) | ||||
Risk Neutral Probability = p = 0.75 | ||||
1- p = 0.25 | ||||
If Stock reach 120, pay off 0 with probability 0.75 | ||||
If Stock reach 80, pay off 100 -80 = 20 with probability 0.25 | ||||
Using Binominal function, Put Option Price | ||||
= (0*0.75 + 20*0.25) / 1.1 = 4.55 | ||||
Answer (ii) | ||||
Using Bionominal function, no-arbitrage call price | ||||
= (20*0.75 + 20*0.25) / 1.1 = 13.63 | ||||
Yes, there is mis-pricing. | ||||