In: Finance
Consider an all-equity firm with 125,000 shares outstanding. Assume that EBIT=800,000 and that EBIT will remain constant, the firm pays out all profits (EPS = dividends per share) as dividends, and that its tax rate is 40%. If the firm’s beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate is 4%, and the market risk premium is 6%, what is the firm’s stock price according to the dividend growth model?
Round your answer to the nearest cent.
EBIT | $ 800,000 | |
Interest | $ - | (Since all equity firm) |
EBT | $ 800,000 | |
Tax @ 40% | $ (320,000) | |
Earning after tax | $ 480,000 | |
Dividend distribution | $ 480,000 | (Since there is no retention) |
No of shares | 125,000 | |
Dividend per share | 480000/125000 | |
Dividend per share | $ 3.84 | |
Risk free rate | 4% | |
Market risk premium | 6% | |
Beta | 1.1 | |
Cost of equity= | Risk free rate + Beta * Market risk premium | |
Cost of equity= | 4%+1.1*6% | |
Cost of equity= | 10.60% | |
Current Dividend | £ 3.84 | |
Rate of return | 10.60% | |
Growth Rate | 0.00% | (Since there is no retention, there will be no growth) |
Share Price | =Current Dividend*(1+Growth rate)/(Rate of return-Growth Rate) | |
Share Price | =3.84*(1+0)/(0.106-0) | |
Share Price | £ 36.23 | |