In: Finance
15 minutes An industrial organization has bought a specialized machine for $120,000 which will save $20,000 each year for 10 years. Straight Line (SL) basis depreciation should be taken into consideration with a depreciable life of 10 years. After tax MARR is 10% per year. Effective income tax rate is 40%. After 10 years, the machine will have zero salvage value. a) Draw a table showing Before Tax Cash Flow (BTCF) and After Tax Cash Flow (ATCF). b) Calculate the after tax PW and IRR. (Use interpolation method to find IRR). Is it feasible?
Determination of Before Tax cash flows and After Tax cash flows
Year | Cash flow( BTCF) | Depreciation | Taxable income | Tax @ 40% | ATCF ( BTCF - Tax) |
0 | ($120,000) | ($120,000) | |||
1 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
2 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
3 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
4 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
5 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
6 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
7 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
8 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
9 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
10 | $20,000 | $12,000 | $8,000.0 | $3,200.0 | $16,800.0 |
Computation of the Present worth.
Year | Cash flow( ATCF) | Disc @ 10% | DCF |
0 | -$120,000.00 | 1.0000 | -$120,000.00 |
1 | $16,800.00 | 0.9091 | $15,272.73 |
2 | $16,800.00 | 0.8264 | $13,884.30 |
3 | $16,800.00 | 0.7513 | $12,622.09 |
4 | $16,800.00 | 0.6830 | $11,474.63 |
5 | $16,800.00 | 0.6209 | $10,431.48 |
6 | $16,800.00 | 0.5645 | $9,483.16 |
7 | $16,800.00 | 0.5132 | $8,621.06 |
8 | $16,800.00 | 0.4665 | $7,837.32 |
9 | $16,800.00 | 0.4241 | $7,124.84 |
10 | $16,800.00 | 0.3855 | $6,477.13 |
Total | -$16,771.27 |
As the Present worth of the project is Negetive. The Project is not feasible.
Computation of IRR.:
Year | Cash flow( ATCF) | Disc @ 6% | DCF. | Disc @ 7% | DCF |
0 | -$120,000.00 | 1.0000 | -$120,000.0000 | 1.0000 | -$120,000.000 |
1 | $16,800.00 | 0.9434 | $15,849.0566 | 0.9346 | $15,700.935 |
2 | $16,800.00 | 0.8900 | $14,951.9402 | 0.8734 | $14,673.771 |
3 | $16,800.00 | 0.8396 | $14,105.6040 | 0.8163 | $13,713.804 |
4 | $16,800.00 | 0.7921 | $13,307.1735 | 0.7629 | $12,816.640 |
5 | $16,800.00 | 0.7473 | $12,553.9373 | 0.7130 | $11,978.168 |
6 | $16,800.00 | 0.7050 | $11,843.3371 | 0.6663 | $11,194.549 |
7 | $16,800.00 | 0.6651 | $11,172.9595 | 0.6227 | $10,462.196 |
8 | $16,800.00 | 0.6274 | $10,540.5278 | 0.5820 | $9,777.753 |
9 | $16,800.00 | 0.5919 | $9,943.8942 | 0.5439 | $9,138.087 |
10 | $16,800.00 | 0.5584 | $9,381.0323 | 0.5083 | $8,540.268 |
Present Worth | $3,649.4625 | -$2,003.830 |
We know that at IRR, Present value of cash inflows is equal to present value of cash outflow.
So at IRR, Present worth of a projrect should be 0.
From the table, we can observe that , IRR lies between 6% and 7%
By using interpolation technique, we can fin the IRR.
Disc | PW |
6% | $3,649.4625 |
7%. | -$2,003.830 |
For 1% Change in Disc rate, Present worth turns from $ 3649.4625 to ( $ 2003.830)
So total change in PW= $ 3649.4625-(-$2003.830)
= $5653.2925
Change in Disc | Change in PW |
1% | $5,653.29 |
X % | $3,649.46 |
X = $ 3649.46/5653.29
X = 0.6455
So the IRR is 6.6455%
Decision: Since the IRR is less than the Cost of Capital ( i.e 10%) the projecct is not feasible.
Hence the project is not feasible under both the criteria(i. e in PW & IRR).
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