show (b1+b2+...+bn)/n >= (b1b2...bn)^(1/n) Hint: do induction over k when n = 2k . Then for...

show (b1+b2+...+bn)/n >= (b1b2...bn)^(1/n)

Hint: do induction over k when n = 2k . Then for 2k−1 < n < 2k append to b1, b2, . . . , bn, 2 k − n equal numbers all equal to the arithmetic mean of the first n.

Expert Solution

Colby Messinger answered 5 months ago

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