In: Finance
Regulators treat Tier I capital differently from Tier II capital? What is the difference and why are they treated differently?
Regulators treat Tier I capital differently from Tier II capital?
According to Basel norms,
Bank capital consist of tier 1 & tier 2 capital and both of them are different.
Tier 1 capital consist of bank’s core capital (shareholder's equity and retained earnings) and,
Tier 2 capital consist of supplementary capital, by adding these we can calculate the Capital adequeacy ratio.
Tier 1 capital mainly consist of paid up capital, disclosed reserves, capital reserves, investment fluctuation reserves.
Tier 2 capital consist of mainly Undisclosed reserves, revaluation reserve, provision and loss reserve, hybrid debt capital such as bonds, unsecured loans longer term, debt capital securities
Regulators treat tier 1 & 2 capital differently because,
If a bank loses tier 1 capital their business will not be halted, but if you are start losing tier 2 capital then your bank will be going to insolvent
Tier 1 capital is more liquid and reliable
So basically If a bank is in trouble or hit by a scam or any financial deteriotation then first it's tier capital will be hit, if tier 1 capital is sufficient then the bank will be safe.
So according to basel 3 norms Tier 1 capital should be 10.5 %
Basically Tier 1 capital is nothing but equity so in bad financial circumstances Bank will first lose it's equity.
Tier 2 capital consist mainly of debt.