In: Finance
Value of bond = (C * ((1-(1+r)^-n) / r)) + F / (1+r)^n where
C * ((1-(1+r)^-n) / r) = value of coupons and
F / (1+r)^n = present value of face value
C = coupon = 1000 * 9% = 90
R = interest rate = 5%, 6% and 10%
n = number of years = 19 years and 1 year
F = face value = 1000
Value of bond L
at 5% = (90 * ((1-(1+5%)^-19) / 5%)) + 1000 / (1+5%)^19 =
1483.41
at 6% = (90 * ((1-(1+6%)^-19) / 6%)) + 1000 / (1+6%)^19 =
1334.74
at 10% = (90 * ((1-(1+10%)^-19) / 10%)) + 1000 / (1+10%)^19 =
916.35
Value of bond S (since only 1 payment of fave value + coupon is due at the end if 1 year it can be easily discounted with the formula of 1 year)
at 5% = 1090 / (1+5%) = 1038.10
at 6% = 1090 / (1+6%) = 1028.3
at 10% =1090 / (1+10%) = 990.91
Why does the longer-term bond’s price vary more than the price of the shorter-term bond when interest rates change?
Answer : B)Long-term bonds have greater interest rate risk than do short-term bonds
Reason : there are more chance that interest rate rises in future and adversely affect the price of bond.
If interest rate changes in future it will affect long term bond for more years resulting in more variance in prices of long term bonds