explain the ricardian equivalence result: "the timing
of taxation does not affect the timing of consumption". Show how
the existence of a binding borrowing constraint changes this
result.
Write a simple macroeconomic model where Ricardian equivalence
does not hold. Explain why Ricardian equivalence does not hold in
this model by deriving necessary conditions.
What is Ricardian equivalence? According to the Ricardian view
of government debt, how does a debt-financed tax cut affect public
saving, private saving, and national saving? What is one reason
that Ricardian equivalence might not hold?
2. Assuming Ricardian equivalence holds, how much would current
consumption fall as a result of a one unit increase in government
spending, assuming this increase did not affect the real interest
rate? What is then the total impact on the demand for goods?
3. Explain in words what the partial expenditure multiplier
measures? What does it equal to assuming Ricardian equivalence
holds? What about when Ricardian equivalence does not hold?
3) Fiscal Policy
a. What does fiscal policy refer to?
b. How could fiscal policy affect AD?
c. Why would a government use fiscal policy to stabilize the
economy ?
d. What, specifically, would they do to stabilize?
e. What are some of the risks of using fiscal policy to
stabilize?
f. What are automatic fiscal stabilizers, and how do they affect
the budget deficit/surplus?
1) What is fiscal policy?
2) How does fiscal policy affect the economy?
3) Which one of the five smart fiscal policy keys would be best
to boost our GDP?
Can you explain the Ricardian Equivalence theorem. How it may
fail to hold? And keeping the assumptions made in mind, and discuss
the relevance of the theory to the real world effect of fiscal
consolidation. A detailed answer please