Question

Do you think economic inequality explicitly or implicitly supports sexism and racism? If not, why not? If yes, why? Discuss

Answer 1

Explicitly is in detailed manner and implicitly is hidden. Now in the case of economic inequality, there is unequal distribution of income between different groups of people. Economic inequality arises because people have been disadvantaged and governments have not completely helped such people go up the value chain. All these causes have led to economic inequality supporting sexism and racism explicitly as they feel they have been used and exploited, and because of less education and understanding they support all this discrimination as they have often been treated marginally which has led them to give them any excuse to show a sign of superiority wherever they find a base. Thus a poor white man who has been exploited and treated badly, will clearly try to seek revenge and will look for how he can be superior as the quality of life is not letting him lead a superior life, thus he will try to explicitly support sexism and racism as only then can he be in power for some characteristic, if not income. Rich people implicitly support sexism and racism in their race for power as they can't clearly state their intentions cause otherwise they will be backfired. So all in all yes, economic inequality does explicitly support racism and sexism as they want other people to feel disadvantaged and because of real lack of power in terms of monetary need, they seek power through these means. If the society was more equal then only some individuals would practice such forms of discrimination and support it, but if it is unequal than there is widespread support.