In: Advanced Math
Please explain why and how the following are true.
I. p ⇒(q∧r) is equivalent to (p ⇒q)∧(p ⇒r)
II. Let p(x) and p(x) be defined on an random/arbitrary universe of discourse. Why, in words, is (∀x)[p(x) ∧ q(x)] equivalent to[(∀x)p (x)] ∧ [(∀x)q(x)]
Here logical proposition are given ... we want to show they are equivalent....above images contains solution of that...