In: Psychology
You are the mayor of a major city, and you want to keep the streets as clean as possible. You send the city`s street sweepers to the more affluent neighborhoods, but you ignore the poorer neighborhood because the poor residents pay less in taxes than the right people do. Is this practice a violation of the impartiality principle? Why or Why not?
(Word 150-250)
According to me this practice is violation of impartiality principle as per impartiality principle the decision should be made to benefit the majority as whole, instead of doing discrimination or prejudice with minority or poor people.
Being the mayor
of city, it's my duty to make clean the whole city
whether it's place of poor people or of rich people. As they are
also citizen of the country and they also deserve clean place
.
These expenses of cleanness goes from government fund and they
release these funds for all area and not for particular region on
the basis of poorness or richness.
This type of practice is totally discriminatory and is
unacceptable. So this is totally violation of impartiality
principle and if a mayor will do these types of act then what
common people will learn from this? It will give rise to
discrimination and biasness in society which is
unfair and should be eliminated.
Thanks
Hope you will appreciate