In: Finance
A corporate pension plan has to make the following payments over the next few years:
Year | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
Amount ($ million) | 16 | 20 | 26 | 34 |
The appropriate interest rate is 6%.
1. What is the present value of the liability (in $ million)?
2. What is the duration of the liability?
(1)-Present value of the liability
Year |
Annual Payments ($ in Millions) |
Present Value Factor at 6% |
Present Value |
1 |
16 |
0.94340 |
15.09 |
2 |
20 |
0.89000 |
17.80 |
3 |
26 |
0.83962 |
21.84 |
4 |
34 |
0.79209 |
26.93 |
TOTAL |
$81.66 |
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“The Present value of the liability will be $81.66 Million”
(2)-Duration of the liability
Year (1) |
Annual Payments ($ in Millions) (2) |
Present Value Factor at 6% (3) |
Present Value (4) = (3) x (2) |
Weight (5) |
Duration (6) = (1) x (5) |
1 |
16 |
0.94340 |
15.09 |
0.18485 |
0.18 |
2 |
20 |
0.89000 |
17.80 |
0.21799 |
0.44 |
3 |
26 |
0.83962 |
21.83 |
0.26734 |
0.80 |
4 |
34 |
0.79209 |
26.93 |
0.32981 |
1.32 |
TOTAL |
81.66 |
1.0000 |
2.74 |
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“The Duration of the liability will be 2.74 Years”
NOTE
-The formula for calculating the Present Value Inflow Factor (PVIF) is [1 / (1 + r)n], where “r” is the Discount Rate/Cost of capital and “n” is the number of years.