In: Finance
A corporate pension plan has to make the following payments over the next few years:
| Year | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 
| Amount ($ million) | 16 | 20 | 26 | 34 | 
The appropriate interest rate is 6%.
1. What is the present value of the liability (in $ million)?
2. What is the duration of the liability?
(1)-Present value of the liability
| 
 Year  | 
 Annual Payments ($ in Millions)  | 
 Present Value Factor at 6%  | 
 Present Value  | 
| 
 1  | 
 16  | 
 0.94340  | 
 15.09  | 
| 
 2  | 
 20  | 
 0.89000  | 
 17.80  | 
| 
 3  | 
 26  | 
 0.83962  | 
 21.84  | 
| 
 4  | 
 34  | 
 0.79209  | 
 26.93  | 
| 
 TOTAL  | 
 $81.66  | 
||
“The Present value of the liability will be $81.66 Million”
(2)-Duration of the liability
| 
 Year (1)  | 
 Annual Payments ($ in Millions) (2)  | 
 Present Value Factor at 6% (3)  | 
 Present Value (4) = (3) x (2)  | 
 Weight (5)  | 
 Duration (6) = (1) x (5)  | 
| 
 1  | 
 16  | 
 0.94340  | 
 15.09  | 
 0.18485  | 
 0.18  | 
| 
 2  | 
 20  | 
 0.89000  | 
 17.80  | 
 0.21799  | 
 0.44  | 
| 
 3  | 
 26  | 
 0.83962  | 
 21.83  | 
 0.26734  | 
 0.80  | 
| 
 4  | 
 34  | 
 0.79209  | 
 26.93  | 
 0.32981  | 
 1.32  | 
| 
 TOTAL  | 
 81.66  | 
 1.0000  | 
 2.74  | 
||
“The Duration of the liability will be 2.74 Years”
NOTE
-The formula for calculating the Present Value Inflow Factor (PVIF) is [1 / (1 + r)n], where “r” is the Discount Rate/Cost of capital and “n” is the number of years.