In: Finance
I am buying a firm with an expected perpetual cash flow of $630 but am unsure of its risk. If I think the beta of the firm is zero, when the beta is really 1, how much more will I offer for the firm than it is truly worth? Assume the risk-free rate is 6% and the expected rate of return on the market is 18%. (Input the amount as a positive value.)
Present value difference
$
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When Beta is 0, expected rate of return is risk free rate of return. | ||||||||
Present value with 0 beta | = | Annual cash flows / Expected rate of return | ||||||
= | $ 630 | / | 6% | |||||
= | $ 10,500 | |||||||
When firm has beta of 1, expected return of firm is as equal to market return. | ||||||||
Present value with beta of 1 | = | Annual cash flows / Expected rate of return | ||||||
= | $ 630 | / | 18% | |||||
= | $ 3,500 | |||||||
Present value difference | = | $ 10,500 | - | $ 3,500 | ||||
= | $ 7,000 | |||||||