In: Accounting
(CPA) The following information relates to the manufacturing operations of Herman Company for March:
Actual total overhead costs $178,000
Flexible-budge formula based on machine-hours (MH) $110,000 + $0.50 per MH
Budgeted total overhead cost rate per MH $1.50 per MH
Total overhead spending variance $8,000 unfavorable
Production-volume variance $5,000 favorable
Herman uses the 3-variance analysis of overhead costs.
a. Compute the actual machine-hours used.
b. Compute the budgeted machine-hours allowed for actual output produced.
Solution
a) Let X = Actual machine-hours used:
Actual Costs Incurred = Budgeted FOH Rate+ (Actual Input Incurred x Budgeted VOH Rate)+TOH spending variance
$178,000 = $110,000 + $0.50X + $8,000
$ 178,000 - $ 8,000 = $110,000 + $ 0.50X
$0.50X = 178,000- & 8,000 -$ 110,000
X = 120,000 machine hours
Because the TOH spending variance is unfavorable, in the equation it is subtracted from the actual costs incurred to equal the flexible-budget amount of $110,000 + $0.50X
b) Let Y = Budgeted machine-hours allowed for actual output produced:
= Same Budgeted Lump- Allocated: Budgeted Input Allowed for Sum Regardless of Actual Output Output Level x Budgeted Rate
$110,000 = $1.50Y - $0.50Y - $5,000
$115,000 = $1.00Y
Y = 115,000 machine-hours
Because the production-volume variance is favorable, in the equation it is added to the flexible budget amount of $110,000 to equal the FOH allocated amount of $1.50Y- $0.50Y.
Please give thumbs up :-)