In: Finance
Answers: -
t=0 OCF = $0
t=0 FCF = ($200,000)
t=1 OCF = $123,600
t=1 FCF =$123,600
t=2 OCF = $116,400
t=2 FCF = $160,400
Explanation: -
Step 1: calculation of Operating cash flows:
Depreciation calculations:
Depreciation expense of Year 1 = $180,000 * 55% = $99,000
Depreciation expense of Year 2 = $180,000 * 45% = $81,000
Years |
0 |
1 |
2 |
Sales revenue |
0 |
350,000 |
350,000 |
Operating costs (60% of revenue) |
0 |
(210,000) |
(210,000) |
Depreciation (y1=55%,y2=45%) |
0 |
(99,000) |
(81,000) |
Operating income |
0 |
41,000 |
59,000 |
Tax (40%) |
0 |
(16,400) |
(23,600) |
Net income |
0 |
24,600 |
35,400 |
ADD non cash item( depreciation) |
0 |
99,000 |
81,000 |
Operating cash flow |
0 |
123,600 |
116,400 |
Step 2: calculating of free cash flow
Calculation of Net incremental working capital
Net incremental working capital = increase in inventories – increase in payables
= $25,000 - $5,000
= $10,000
Calculation of Net cash flow from salvage
Since there the asset is fully depreciated the book value is zero, therefore
Net cash flow from salvage = salvage value * (1-tax rate)
= $40000 * (1-.4)
= $24,000
Since there the asset is fully depreciated the book value is zero
Years |
0 |
1 |
2 |
initial capital expense |
($180,000) |
||
Net working capital |
-20000 |
20000 |
|
Operating cash flow |
0 |
123600 |
116400 |
salvage cash flow |
24,000 |
||
Free cash flow |
($200,000) |
$123,600 |
$160,400 |