Explain the content of the Ricardian Equivalence Theorem and its
implications. Discuss whether the theorem is...
Explain the content of the Ricardian Equivalence Theorem and its
implications. Discuss whether the theorem is likely to hold in
practice.
Solutions
Expert Solution
Meaning and Explanation
: According to Ricardian Equivalence, government spending
funded through the borrowing does not increase aggregate demand in
economy. There is no difference whether spending is funded through
the tax or borrowing. Increase in public debt in form of borrowing
would be correctly anticipated by the people. Hence people would
anticipate that government is going to increases taxes in near
future pay off debts. Hence, they will reduce current spending and
save more for paying future taxes.
Implications:
Thus, government spending would not help to get economy out of
recession. Increase in spending funded by debt would increase
saving by people to payoff future taxes.
Practical
experiences: practical experience suggest opposite
results. According to Keynesian economics, during the recession
government spending funded through the borrowing and tax cut would
help to increase aggregate demand in economy which assists in
tackling problem of recession.
1.
a) Outline the Ricardian Equivalence Theorem and discuss its
usefulness and weaknesses.
b) What will be the likely effects of the recent Trump tax cuts
on the US economy in the shortrun and the long run?
Should Canadian taxes be adjusted in response to the Trump tax
cuts?
Define the Ricardian Equivalence Theorem. Explain the macroeconomic
effects of a tax cut according to the Ricardian Equivalence
proposition. Include in your answer the IS-LM graph that shows the
effects of this tax cut.
Can you explain the Ricardian Equivalence theorem. How it may
fail to hold? And keeping the assumptions made in mind, and discuss
the relevance of the theory to the real world effect of fiscal
consolidation. A detailed answer please
Write a simple macroeconomic model where Ricardian equivalence
does not hold. Explain why Ricardian equivalence does not hold in
this model by deriving necessary conditions.
Ricardian Equivalence Theorem
For concreteness, suppose that all consumers in the economy earn
the same labour income and pay the same amount of taxes in each
period, but that one group of consumers ('the poor') enters the
economy with a zero level of initial wealth at the beginning of
period 1, whereas the remaining consumers ('the rich') start out
with a level of initial wealth equal to V1. Moreover,
suppose that disposable labour income in period 1 is so low...
explain the ricardian equivalence result: "the timing
of taxation does not affect the timing of consumption". Show how
the existence of a binding borrowing constraint changes this
result.
What is Ricardian equivalence? According to the Ricardian view
of government debt, how does a debt-financed tax cut affect public
saving, private saving, and national saving? What is one reason
that Ricardian equivalence might not hold?
Explain what is Ricardian equivalence.
List five reasons why it may not hold.
Find an academic publication assessing empirical evidence of
Ricardian equivalence and summarize its conclusion.