5). Let f : [a,b] to R be bounded and f(x) > a > 0, for...

5). Let f : [a,b] to R be bounded and f(x) > a > 0, for all x in [a,b]. Show that if f is Riemann integrable on [a,b] then 1/f : [a,b] to R, (1/f) (x) = 1/f(x) is also Riemann integrable on [a,b].

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Expert Solution

Colby Messinger answered 1 year ago

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