In: Finance
18.00% 21.00% 27.50% |
8.00% 11.65% 7.50% |
17.55% 18.58% 20.12% |
-$15,184 $14,446 $28,170 |
16.51% 15.17% 11.32% |
17.28% 19.78% 20.86% |
1)
cost of equity using CAPM model = risk free rate + beta ( expected return on market - risk free rate)
Cost of equity = 0.05 + 1.5 ( 0.2 - 0.05)
Cost of equity = 0.275 or 27.5%
2)
Face value = 1,000
Price = 1196.36
number of periods = 20
Coupon payment = 0.1 * 1000 = 100
Pre tax cost of debt using a financial calculator is 8.00%
Keys to use in a financial calculator: PV = -1196.36, FV = 1000, PMT = 50, N = 20 , CPT I/Y
3)
After tax cost of debt = pre tax cost of debt ( 1 - tax rate)
After tax cost of debt = 0.08 ( 1 - 0.35)
After tax cost of debt = 0.052 or 5.2%
Weight of equity = 1 / 1.66666 = 0.600002
weight of debt = 1 - 0.600002 = 0.399998
WACC = weight of debt * cost of debt + weight of equity * cost of equity
WACC = 0.399998* 0.052 + 0.600002* 0.275'
WACC = 0.0208 + 0.165001
WACC = 0.1858 or 18.58%
4)
NPV = present value of cash inflows - present value of cash outflows
NPV = -225,000 + 70000 / ( 1 + 0.1858)1 + 100,000 / ( 1 + 0.1858)2 + 0 + 125,000 / ( 1 + 0.1858)4
NPV = -$31,629
5)
IRR is the rate of return tha makes NPV equal to 0
-225,000 + 70000 / ( 1 + r)1 + 100,000 / ( 1 + r)2 + 0 + 125,000 / ( 1 + r)4 = 0
From the option let's try 11.32% as a:
-225,000 + 70000 / ( 1 + 0.1132)1 + 100,000 / ( 1 + 0.1132)2 + 0 + 125,000 / ( 1 + 0.1132)4 = 0
0 = 0
Therefore, IRR is 11.32%
5)
Future value of first cash flow = 70000 / ( 1 + 0.1858)3 = 116,716.5328
Future value of 2nd cash flow = 100,000/ ( 1 + 0.1858)2 = 140,612.64
Future value of 3rd cash flow = 0
Future value of 4th cash flow = 125,000 / ( 1 + 0.1858)0 = 125,000
Total future value = 125,000 + 140,612.64 + 116,716.5328 = 382,329.1728
Fv = PV ( 1+ r)n
382,329.1728 = 225,000 ( 1 + r )4
1.699241 = ( 1 + r )4
4th root of 1.699241 is 1.141731
1.141731 = 1 + r
0.141731 = r
MIRR is 14.17%