In: Economics
You are interested in manufacturing a new product and wish to purchase entry-level equipment. You have identified two alternative sets of equipment and gear. Package A has a first cost of $160,000, an operating cost of $8000 per quarter, and a salvage value of $40,500 after its 2-year life. Package B has a first cost of $210,000 with a lower operating cost of $5000 per quarter, and an estimated $25,000 salvage value after its 4-year life. Which package offers the lower present worth analysis at an interest rate of 8% per year, compounded quarterly?
The given question is: |
Package A | Package B |
First Cost | 1,60,000 | 2,10,000 |
Annual operating cost | 32,000 | 20,000 |
Salvage value | 40,500 | 25,000 |
Life(n) | 2 | 4 |
Interest rate(i) | 0.08 | 0.08 |
As the interest rate compounded quaterly we will calculate effective annual rate of return from compound interest formula and it will come out for both package is 8.24% . We will use this interest rate for the calculation.
Annual operating cost is arrived by converting quaterly operating cost into annual. i.e.
For package A = 8000*4= 32000
For package B= 5000*4= 20000
Now, In the given question, the life of equipment has different life alternatives. So, we have to calculate the value of each machine using the LCM (Least common multiple) method.
The life of package a is 2 years and life of package B is 4 years.
The LCM of both package will come out 4 years. So we will calculate the present value at 4 years study period.
The Present value of package A for 2 years
PWA = -160000-32000(P/A, i,n) + 40,500(P/F, i,n)
= -160000-32000((1+i)n-1/(i(1+i)n)) +40500(1/(1+i)n
=-160000-32000((1+0.0824)2)-1/(0.0824(1+0.0824)2))+ 40500(1/(1+0.0824)2
= -160000-32000(1.171-1)/0.0824(1.171)) + 40500(1/1.171)
=-160000-32000(1.21)+34568
=-164151
For 4 years
=-164151-164151(P/F,i,n)
=-164151-164151((1/(1+0.0824)2)
=-304260
The Present value of package B for 4 years
PWB = -210000-20000(P/A, i,n) + 25000(P/F, i,n)
= -210000-20000((1+i)n-1/(i(1+i)n)) +25000(1/(1+i)n
=-210000-20000((1+0.0824)4)-1/(0.0824(1+0.0824)4))+ 25000(1/(1+0.0824)4
= -210000-20000(1.37-1)/0.0824(1.37)) + 25000(1.37)
=-210000-20000(3.27)+29250
=-246150
Clearly we can see PWA<PWB
So, the package B offers the lower present worth analysis.