Question

4. How does Locke believe inequality with respect to ownership originates? Does he think this inequality is justified? Why or why not? How does inequality occur according to Rousseau?

Answer 1

According to Locke, inequality with respect to ownership originates in terms of property. He discussed about, who should gain the ownership of property according to (1) natural law (ancestral), (2) exertion of labor on the available natural resources or (3) according to Bible which states that the world is common to humanity. Therefore, inequality originates in terms of the above mentioned theory, proposed by John Locke.

Locke favors natural right over one's individual property as well as labor on available natural resources. He believed that an individual has worked on or he has right over the ancestral property. Hence, this inequality is justified.

On the other hand, Rousseau does not support any natural rights over the property . He believes that property do not belong to an individual who has not created it. He states that natural sources are the bases of inequality.

Rouseau also mentioned about Natural and moral inequality. Natural inequality depends on age, physique, sex etc, he did not oppose natural inequality because he believed that nothing can be done in this context. He defined moral inequality in terms of caste, religion, race etc and he demanded that such inequality should be eradicated.