Texas argued that it is unconstitutional to impose preclearance unless a state's racial discrimination was as...

Texas argued that it is unconstitutional to impose preclearance unless a state's racial discrimination was as bad as what existed in 1965. In 2013, then-Attorney General Gregg Abbott argued that voter discrimination is no longer a problem in Texas and consequently is exempt from federal oversight. Do you agree? If yes, why? If not, why not?

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USA, until 1950s was known for racial discrimination, even though Blacks were a free community by constitution. Institutional racism as it is known today has taken the toll of the country. Institutional racism refers to the neglecting of races other than the White in terms of housing, medical facilities, education, employment etc. Texas was specially a racist state although it regretted the act of racism. Today Texas has taken another institutional racism weapon by imposing strict documentation rules for getting the voter ID. One will not be allowed to the voting booth unless they show an official ID but in order to get the ID, one has to go through a strict documentation check. This would leave most of the economically disadvantaged people out of voting and only the privileged White people who are economically strong would be able to vote. Racism is not over yet but it has only taken a different shape.

Hayet Jeridi answered 6 months ago

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