In: Statistics and Probability
We are assuming each trial as independent. The no of trials is 10, i.e. n=10.
The probability of getting a diamond in a random trial is 1/4 as there are 13 diamonds in a full deck( i,e, 52 cards), so p=0.25.
a) To get exactly 5 diamonds, we would see the no of ways that it can happen, and i.e. C510 (its by the basic combination rule of selecting say k similar items from n items)
Now probability of each of this case is,
P= P(diamond)5xP(non-diamond)5
Total probabiltiy is,
P= P(diamond)5xP(non-diamond)5x(no of ways to get it)
=(1/4)5x(3/4)5x(C510)
=0.0584
b) No, because to resonably model binomial distribution as a normal distribution, the p value should be away from 0 & 1 and the n should be large. A reasonable thumb of rule is np>5 and n(1-p)>5.
here, np = 10 x 0.25 = 2.5 < 5 and n(1-p) = 10 x 0.75 = 7.5 > 5
since one of the two conditions is not followed so its not reasonable to approximate it
c) If we approximate it to normal then, the mean and standard deviation of normal is same as the binomial
i.e. mean = µ = p = 0.25 and standard deviation = σ = √( p(1-p) ) = √( 0.25x0.75 ) = 0.433
d) The normal distribution is given as,
so to find probabilty for exactly 5 diamonds, we put x = 5,
e) the answer to d and a part are quite different, probably as we said in part b that its not reasonable to approximate these distribution, means their distributions don't resembles and so thats why the probabilty are also different here.