In: Economics
Table 1
Labor hours to make: |
In North Korea |
In Russia |
1 bushel of wheat |
4 |
1 |
1 ton of iron |
10 |
5 |
You make several Ricardian assumptions: these are the only two commodities, the productivity of labor is constant for each product no matter how much is produced, and competition prevails in all markets.
If Russia and North Korea are allowed to trade, between what prices would the international relative price of iron be? Between what prices would the international relative price of wheat be?
Please show work and step by step explanation. Thanks!
(a)
Productivity table (productivity = number of units produced in one hour) as follows.
N. Korea | Russia | |
Wheat | 1/4 = 0.25 | 1/1 = 1 |
Iron | 1/10 = 0.1 | 1/5 = 0.2 |
Since Russia has higher productivity in wheat than N. Korea has (1 > 0.25) and higher productivity in iron than N. Korea has (0.2 > 0.1), Russia has absolute advantage in both wheat and iron.
(b)
Relative price (RP) is computed as follows.
In N. Korea,
RP of wheat = 0.1/0.25 = 0.4 iron
RP of iron = 0.25/0.1 = 2.5 wheat
In Russia,
RP of wheat = 0.2/1 = 0.2 iron
RP of iron = 1/0.2 = 5 wheat
Since Russia can produce wheat at lower RP than N. Korea can (0.2 < 0.4), Russia has comparative advantage in wheat.
Since N. Korea can produce iron at lower RP than Russia can (2.5 < 5), N. Korea has comparative advantage in iron.
(c)
According to comparative advantage, Russia will export wheat and N. Korea will export iron.
(d)
For trade to be mutually beneficial, after-trade relative price has to lie between pre-trade RP in both trading parties.
Acceptable after-trade RP are:
2.5 wheat < RP of iron < 5 wheat, and equivalently,
0.2 iron < RP of wheat < 0.4 iron.