Question

2) Aristotle discusses several specific virtues and their accompanying vices in his Nicomachean Ethics, but he also notes that the possible virtues and vices associated with “shame” are dif-ferent, and that there isn’t, strictly speaking, a virtuous mean for shame. How is it that “shame” seems as if it can be analyzed in terms of virtue and vice, just as “fear” or “desire” are? Why would Aristotle say that despite this, there is no virtuous state for shame?

Answer 1

According to Aristotle, shame is not a moral virtue, it has a connection with moralities of life such as.humanity and benevolence. Ethical concept is parasitic upon ethical concept of virtue. for one who takes this seriously,any version of ethics or virtue, the concepts of shame deserves attension.Aristotle suggests that truly virtues person will have no sense of shame.

People always blush when they feel ashamed, and they turn pale when they fear,it appears bodily which shows it is the characterestic of feeling , rather than state.Aristotle uses term pathos it refers broadly to anything which the subject may undergo, where the change in subject is generally understood to be temperory, here he focus all about human soul.

He claims that virtues and vices cannot be feelings on ground , feelings is not because of praise or blame, feeling unlike virtues and vices occurs in absence of decision, virtues and vices must be capacities,he points out that merly being

capable of having feelings deserves neither praise or blame, it follows that virtues and vices are states.

Aristotle clearly presents shame similar to a virtue but closer to a feeling , thus it is non virtue despite of the mordern deemphisis of relation of shame and virtue, aristotle specificallybpresent a linl between non virtue and moral values.