Question

In: Finance

Fixed Income Arbitrage is to find mispricing of coupon bonds through the system of linear equations...

Fixed Income Arbitrage is to find mispricing of coupon bonds through the system of linear equations where # of equations > # of unknowns. Suppose there are only three treasury coupon bonds on the market today:

Bond A: 2-year 2% treasury coupon bond, trading today at price $937.

Bond B: 2-year 3% treasury coupon bond, trading today at price $970.

Bond C: 2-year 4% treasury coupon bond, trading today at price $974.

Let ??0,1 and ??0,2 be the two unknowns, where ??0,1 denotes the price today of a 1-year STRIPS, and ??0,2 the price today of a 2-year STRIPS. Face value of STRIPS is $1. Questions:

1) Since each coupon bond is essentially a portfolio of STRIPS, write the 3-equation 2-unknown system.

2) If market price of STRIPS are: ??0,1 = 0.95 and ??0,2 = 0.9, plug into the 3- equation 2- unknown system, is there arbitrage opportunities in any of the coupon bonds, in which one(s)?

Solutions

Expert Solution

A coupon paying bond can be expressed as a combination of STRIPS of different maturity. Say for example a 2 year 2% coupon bond will pay:

  • 2% x Par value = 2% x 1,000 = $ 20 as first coupon at t = 1; this is equivalent to 20 nos. of 1 year STRIPS
  • $ 20 as second coupon + Par value of 1,000 at t= 2; this is equivalent to 1,020 nos. of 2 year STRIPS

Hence, Price of this bond should be = Price of 20 nos. of 1 year STRIP + Price of 1020 nos. of 2 year STRIPS

937 = 20PP0,1 + 1,020PP0,2

Part (1)

Three equations in two unknows will be:

Hence, out first equation will be: Eqn (1) ------------- 20PP0,1 + 1,020PP0,2 = 937

second equation will be: Eqn (2) ---------------------30PP0,1 + 1,030PP0,2 = 970

and third equation will be: Eqn (2) -------------------40PP0,1 + 1,040PP0,2 = 974

Part (2)

PP0,1 = 0.95 and PP0,2 = 0.9

LHS of Eqn (1) = 20PP0,1 + 1,020PP0,2 = 20 x 9.95 + 1,020 x 0.90 = 937 = RHS of Eqn (1)

LHS of Eqn (2) = 30PP0,1 + 1,030PP0,2 = 30 x 9.95 + 1,030 x 0.90 = 955.50 < RHS of Eqn (2)

LHS of Eqn (3) = 40PP0,1 + 1,040PP0,2 = 40 x 9.95 + 1,040 x 0.90 = 974 = RHS of Eqn (3)

Eqn (2) is not satisfied that means Bond B is not priced appropriately and hence there exists an arbitrage opportunity in Bond B


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