In: Economics
Must use Microsoft Excel
Select the best alternative below using Present Worth analysis. (Use Excel)
| A | B | C | D | |
| Installed Cost of Pipeline and Pump | 22,000 | 23,000 | 25,000 | 30,000 |
| Cost per hour pumping | 1.2 | .65 | .5 | .4 |
| The pump will operate 2000 hours per year | ||||
| Interest is 7%/year and Life is infinite |
Workings
| Interest Rate | 7% | ||||
| A | B | C | D | ||
| Initial Cost of Pipeline & Pump | 22,000 | 23,000 | 25,000 | 30,000 | |
| Cost/hour Pumping | 1.2 | 0.65 | 0.5 | 0.4 | |
| No. of Hours | 2000 | 2000 | 2000 | 2000 | |
| Total Cost per year=No.of hours per year* Cost/hour | 2400 | 1300 | 1000 | 800 | |
| PW of Cost=Sum of Discounted Future Cost/ year | |||||
| Discounted Future Cost | Future Cost at time "t" /(1+interest rate)^t | ||||
| We are looking for period that is infinite hence t is very large | |||||
| PV=FC1/(1+r)+FC2/(1+r)^2+FC3/(1+r)^3+FC4/(1+r)^4+…infinite times & in our case FC1=FC2=FC3=… for each Pipeline | |||||
| but 0<(1/1+r)<1 therefore sum of discounted future cash flow is [FC/(1+r)]*(1/r) | |||||
| A | B | C | D | ||
| Present worth of Future Cost | 32042.72363 | 17356.4753 | 13351.13485 | 10680.90788 | |
| Net Present Worth of Cost=Present Worth of Future Cost+ Initial Cost | 54,043 | 40,356 | 38,351 | 40,681 | |
| As we can see Net Present worth of cost is lowest for Pipeline C therefore Best alternative to choose is Pipeline C | |||||
Formulas used:
| Column A | Column B | Column C | Column D | Column E | Column F | Column G |
| 5 | Interest Rate | 0.07 | ||||
| 6 | Pumping | A | B | C | D | |
| 7 | Initial Cost of Pipeline & Pump | 22000 | 23000 | 25000 | 30000 | |
| 8 | Cost/hour Pumping | 1.2 | 0.65 | 0.5 | 0.4 | |
| 9 | No. of Hours | 2000 | 2000 | 2000 | 2000 | |
| 11 | Total Cost per year=No.of hours per year* Cost/hour | =D9*D8 | =E9*E8 | =F9*F8 | =G9*G8 | |
| 12 | ||||||
| 13 | ||||||
| 14 | PW of Cost=Sum of Discounted Future Cost/ year | |||||
| 15 | Discounted Future Cost | Future Cost at time "t" /(1+interest rate)^t; FCt= Future Cost at Time t in future. | ||||
| 16 | We are looking for period that is infinite hence t is very large | |||||
| 17 | PV=FC1/(1+r)+FC2/(1+r)^2+FC3/(1+r)^3+FC4/(1+r)^4+…infinite times & in our case FC1=FC2=FC3=… for each Pipeline | |||||
| 18 | but 0<(1/1+r)<1 therefore sum of discounted future cash flow is [FC/(1+r)]*(1/r) | |||||
| 19 | A | B | C | D | ||
| 20 | Present worth of Future Cost | =D10/(1+$D$5)*(1/$D$5) | =E10/(1+$D$5)*(1/$D$5) | =F10/(1+$D$5)*(1/$D$5) | =G10/(1+$D$5)*(1/$D$5) | |
| 21 | Net Present Worth of Cost=Present Worth of Future Cost+ Initial Cost | =D19+D7 | =E19+E7 | =F19+F7 | =G19+G7 | |
| 22 | ||||||
| 23 | As we can see Net Present worth of cost is lowest for Pipeline C therefore Best alternative to choose is Pipeline C | |||||
| 24 | ||||||