In: Economics
Answer: When autonomous consumption equals 0.
The consumption is a function of income or more precisely disposable income, i.e., income after tax(Yd = Y -T). The consumption function can be written as;
C = a + bYd .....(1) , where 'a' is an autonomous consumption, that doesn't depend on disposable income(Yd).
Now, if the autonomous consumption is '0', then the consumption function will be as follows;
C = bYd .....(1')
Let us now see what will be the APC(average propensity to consume) and MPC(marginal propensity to consume) of the above consumption function.
Dividing equation(1') by Yd, we get
C / Yd = b
APC = b
Now, differentiating equation(1') with respect to Yd, we get,
dC / dYd = b
MPC = b
APC = MPC = b
Thus we see that when autonomous consumption equals 0, then APC is equal to MPC at all levels of disposable income.
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If there is saving at very high levels of disposable income, a
part of income is used to save.Now, higher the income, lower will
be the APC but for a straight line consumption function, the MPC
remains constant. So APC is not equal to MPC.
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When disposable income is greater than consumption, then APC gradually falls with the rise in income, and MPC remains constant. Thus, APC is not equal to MPC.
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When the aggregate expenditure line is horizontal, then APC decreases with rises in income, and the MPC is zero.
So, APC is not equal to MPC.
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