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Can someone please explain applying the categorical imperative concept by Immanuel Kant to the Bernie Madoff...

Can someone please explain applying the categorical imperative concept by Immanuel Kant to the Bernie Madoff affair? Thank you

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Expert Solution

First categorical imperative is a rule that actions can be universalized. Taking the case of Madoff asking himself "should I lie to keep investor money flowing in?" Thinking that everyone lies all the time. Categorical imperative shows that lying cannot be univeralized. The act of lying cannot happen all the time, because no one would be buying our lines. So, as per Kant, Madoff has to make a basic decision of not lying, because it cannot be univeralized and hence its immoral. The same goes for Sheryl Weinstein as she thinks whether she should hide her family-wrecking affair.

The second categorical imperative is to treat people as an end and never as a means to a end. In the Madoff's case, he uses the money from each new investor to pay the old ones. The second imperative is a dignity principle: treat others with respect and as holding value in themselves. According to Kant, by not treating others as a means to get something, you will act ethically.


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