According to the loop invariant theorem, a valid loop invariant ?(?)I(n) must have the property that...

According to the loop invariant theorem, a valid loop invariant ?(?)I(n) must have the property that

Select one:

a. ?(?)=0I(n)=0 after a finite number of steps.

b. After the loop, ?→?(?)P→I(N) where ?P is the postcondition.

c. ?(0)→?I(0)→Q, where ?Q is the precondition.

d. None of the other answers are correct

Solutions

Expert Solution

THE LOOP INVARIANT THEOREM

A->B means that A implies B

(d) is the correct answer as none of the option is correct

(a) is wrong because I(n) does not beomes 0 after a finite number of steps, it is the G which becomes 0 after a finite number of steps.

(b) is wrong because after the loop I(N) implies P as given in point IV of algorithm

(c) is wrong because Q implies I(0) as given in point I of the algorithm

venereology answered 1 year ago

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