In: Biology
Given that, there are two genes which control retinitis pigmentosa. It can be caused by dominant R allele, or recessive "a" allele.
This means only A_rr are unaffected, whereas aaR_ , A_R_ and aarr are affected.
The man is afflicted, and both of his parents were normal, A_rr. This means, the man will definitely inherit r allele from both parents, and thus it would be rr for the second gene. Thus, the only possible genotype of man is aarr. (Since affected ones cannot have dominant A allele, so the ma must be aa for the first gene).
The cross can be shown as :
(Man) aarr × AaRr (female)
Gamete from man : ar
Gametes from female : AR, Ar, aR and ar.
ar | |
AR | AaRr (affected, due to R allele) |
Ar | Aarr (normal) |
aR | aaRr (affected, due to aa genotype) |
ar | aarr (affected, due to aa genotype). |
Thus, 3/4th children will be affected in this case.
Answer A: Genotype of man will be aarr.
Answer B: Proportion of children expected to suffer : 3/4 th or 75% or 0.75.
(kindly upvote if the answer was helpful).