In: Finance
Company |
A |
B |
Current Ratio |
2.50 |
3.50 |
Quick Ratio |
2.00 |
1.50 |
Based on this information, what can you conclude about the relative liquidity of the two companies, and their relative investments in inventory?
Company |
A |
B |
Return on Equity |
10.05% |
11.67% |
Net Profit Margin |
2.80% |
2.60% |
Total Asset Turnover |
1.75 |
1.70 |
Equity Multiplier |
2.05 |
2.64 |
What explains Company B’s better performance as measured by return on equity? Is it (a) the greater use of debt; (b) superior cost control; (c) more efficient use of assets to generate revenue; or (d) higher dividend payout to shareholders? Or is it some combination of these 4 factors? Make sure to justify our answer, using only the information provided here.
Q1. Cash Inflow=CFA = 50,000
Cash outflow= dividend+interest+debt paid = 15000+12000+30000 = 57,000
As Cash outflow > Cash inflow, the company paid more than it earned. So, the extra money (57000-50000 = $7000) paid must be borrowed. So this company issued any new common stock worth of $7000 to borrow extra money.
Q2.
Current Ratio=Current Assets / Current Liabilities
QuickRatio=Current Assets - Inventory/ Current Liabilities
As the current ratio of 3.5 for B is better than 2.5 of A. we can say company B is more liquid.
As the difference (Current ratio - Quick ratio) gives inventory positions, this difference of 2 (3.5-1.5) for B is greater than 0.5 (2.5-2) for A. So, B has a higher investment in inventory.
Q3. [Dupont model] B's ROI is higher because it has a higher Equity multiplier (among the other 3 ratios than ROI).
Equity multiplier = Total assets/shareholder equity = (debt+ shareholder equity)/shareholder equity.
As B's a higher Equity multiplier, it might be having greater use of debt. So option A is correct.
B's Net Profit Margin is not better. So it does not have superior cost control. So, option B incorrect.
B's total Asset Turnover is not better. So it is not having a more efficient use of assets to generate revenue. So, option C incorrect.
Paying dividend will reduce cash (i.e. assets), So, option D incorrect.
Q4. PV1 = FV/ (1+r)^t = 100,000/ (1+0.04)^10 = 67,556.42
PV2= FV/ (1+r)^t = 100,000/ (1+0.06)^10 = 55,839.48