The correct answer will be option (d) All the listed options are
correct. It is because an FI will always earn fees while arranging
a large loan even if it sells part or all of the loan
later, the capital adequacy requirements imposed on FIs
like reserve requirements are a burden as long as required capital
exceeds the amount the FI believes to be privately beneficial and
holding loans on the balance sheet can increase the overall
illiquidity of an FI's assets in addition to credit risk and
interest rate risk. Ans so all the options are correct. The other
options (a), (b) and (c) are not marked correct individually
because all of them are correct jointly.