Annual wages are 41250 x 5 = $ 206250
The automated system seeks to replace the manual system that
costs $ 206250 annually. Therefore to break even the new system
must cost inclusive of all other overhead costs = $206250.
Suppose the first cost is $x.
Therefore -
- Operating and maintenance expenditure = 5.5% is not a directly
attributable costs as per IAS 16 and IAS 23 so not included.
- Borrowing cost on 43% of first cost = 8.3% of 43% of x (can be
capitalised)
- cost of capital for remaining amount ( 100-43= 57) = 12.9% of
57% (not capitalised)
- salvage value = 8% of x and depreciation over 15 years would be
calculated after the entire cost of the asset is found out.Moreover
depreciation is a revenue expenditure so cannot be capitalised.
However given that income tax rate is 40% then some tax benefit may
be availed as per the country's taxation system.
Therefore adding directly attributable costs we find,
x + 5.5% x + 8.3% of 43% of x = 206250
=>x + 0.055x + 0.3569x = 206250
x = 206250/1.4119 = 146079.75