In: Finance
WACC & Capital Budget Analysis
Based on the inputs below prepare a capital budget analysis for this Base Case using the Net Present Value, Internal Rate of Return, Profitability Index and Payback in years methods, determining whether the project is feasible. Please show your spreadsheet calculations and your final determinations of “go” or “no go” on the project. Use your Investment Return Analysis as an example for this capital budget analysis.
Project Inputs:
WACC – Debt is 70% and Equity is 30% of this firm’s capital structure. Interest rate on the debt is 7.5%, firm’s tax rate is 22%. Firm’s beta is 1.50, Risk Free Rate is 3.0%, Market Return Rate is 9.0%.
Project Investment Outlay, Year 0 - $1,000,000
Project Investment Life – 10 years
Project Depreciation - $100,000 / year
Project Salvage Value - $30,000
Working Capital Base of Annual Sales – 10%
Expected inflation rate per year – 3.0%
Project Tax Rate – 30%
Units sold per year – 40,000
Selling Price per Unit, Year 1 - $40.00
Fixed operating costs per year excluding depreciation - $175,000
Manufacturing (Variable) costs per unit, Year 1 - $30.00
Step 1). WACC calculation:
CAPM ke = risk-free rate + beta*(market return - risk-free rate)
Capital structure: | ||||
Debt (D) | 70% | |||
Equity € | 30% | |||
Cost of debt: | Cost of equity (using CAPM): | |||
Interest rate | 7.50% | risk-free rate | 3% | |
Tax rate | 22% | market return | 9% | |
After-tax cost of debt (kd) (interest rate*(1-tax rate)) | 5.85% | beta | 1.5 | |
cost of equity (ke) | 12.00% | |||
WACC: (kd*D) + (ke*E) | 7.695% |
Nominal discount rate = WACC = 7.695%; inflation rate = 3%
Real discount rate = (nominal discount rate - inflation rate)/(1+inflation rate)
= (7.695% - 3%)/(1+3%) = 4.558%
Step 2). Calculation of after-tax salvage value:
Salvage value = 30,000
Tax rate = 30%
Book value (at the end of the project) = 0 (Straight line depreciation of 10,000/year)
Thus, after-tax salvage value = salvage value*(1-tax-rate) = 30,000*(1-30%) = 21,000
Step 3). Change in working capital:
Year 1 sales = number of units*selling price/unit = 40,000*40 = 1,600,000
Working capital is 10% of sales = 10%*1,600,000 = 160,000
This will be the increase in WC for Year 1 and will be returned at the end of the project i.e. in Year 10.
Step 4). Calculation of Operating Cash Flows:
Year (n) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | |
Formula | Number of units (N) | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 | 40,000 |
Sales price/unit (s) | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | 40 | |
(s*N) | Total sales (S) | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 | 16,00,000 |
Variable cost/unit (v) | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 30 | |
(v*N) | Total variable cost (V) | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 | 12,00,000 |
Total fixed cost (F) | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | 1,75,000 | |
(S-V-F) | EBITDA | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 | 2,25,000 |
Depreciation | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | |
(EBITDA-dep.) | EBIT | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 | 1,25,000 |
30%*EBIT | Tax @30% | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 | 37,500 |
(EBIT-tax) | Net income | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 | 87,500 |
Add: depreciation | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | 1,00,000 | |
(Net income + dep.) | Operating cash flow (OCF) | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 |
Step 5). Calculation of NPV:
Formula | Year (n) | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
Initial investment (I) | -10,00,000 | |||||||||||
Operating cash flow (OCF) | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | ||
(The invested WC is returned at the end of the project) | Add: Change in working capital | -1,60,000 | 1,60,000 | |||||||||
Add: After-tax salvage value (SV) | 21,000 | |||||||||||
(I + OCF + Change in WC + SV) | Total cash flows | -10,00,000 | 27,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 3,68,500 |
1/(1+d)^n | Discount factor @4.558% | 1.0000 | 0.9564 | 0.9147 | 0.8748 | 0.8367 | 0.8002 | 0.7653 | 0.7320 | 0.7001 | 0.6695 | 0.6403 |
(Total cash flow*discount factor) | Discounted cash flow (DCF) | -10,00,000.00 | 26,301.13 | 1,71,508.10 | 1,64,031.15 | 1,56,880.15 | 1,50,040.91 | 1,43,499.83 | 1,37,243.90 | 1,31,260.71 | 1,25,538.35 | 2,35,968.66 |
Sum of all DCF | NPV | 4,42,272.90 |
Thus, NPV = $442,272.90
IRR = 11.48% (using the IRR function in excel)
Step 6). Calculation of Payback Period:
Year (n) | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
Total cash flows | -10,00,000 | 27,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 1,87,500 | 3,68,500 |
Cumulative cash flow | -10,00,000 | -9,72,500 | -7,85,000 | -5,97,500 | -4,10,000 | -2,22,500 | -35,000 | 1,52,500 | 3,40,000 | 5,27,500 | 8,96,000 |
Cash flow turns positive in Year 7.
Fraction of Year 7 = cumulative cash flow in Year 6/Cash flow in Year 7 = 35,000/187,500 = 0.19
Thus, payback period = 6 years + 0.19 year = 6.19 years
Step 7). Calculation of Profitability Index:
PI = Sum of present value of all future cash flows/initial investment = 1,442,272.90/1,000,000 = 1.44
Conclusions:
1. The project has a positive NPV.
2. The IRR is greater than the discount rate
3. Payback period is much earlier than the end of project.
4. Profitability index is greater than 1 so the project is profitable.
Based on these findings, the project should be accepted.